Wednesday, 6 April 2016
Learn How To Write A Good CV in Nigeria
To make your job-hunt,
internships or Industrial Attachment search a success; we advise that
you learn to write a good CV in Nigeria – the way it truly appeal to
local employers. We have noticed with utmost dismay that writing a CV in
Nigeria is something people put off for as long as possible and when
they eventually get to it, they have the impression that so long as
important elements such as work experience, educational qualifications
and bio-data are in place, a CV is complete. Sorry to disagree!
We believe that your CV is an account or narration of yourself. It is YOU talking about YOU in YOUR very own words and in the best way possible. It starts from who you are, to all the places you have been and how you have contributed to those places; your achievements, how you spent your time, and even personal details like your marital status and so on. Bearing this in mind, every detail and information provided must be meticulously considered and articulately presented. Put your most flattering qualities or accomplishments up front and then move gradually to less flattering qualities.
In writing your CV in Nigeria, presentation is everything! Your content, layout, template, font type, font size, line spacing, bullets and borders are all crucial in achieving a great looking CV. If someone has 3 years of experience and another has 6 years of experience, and they are both applying for the same job, the ONLY thing that differentiates them is the way they both present their work experiences.
The basic elements of your CV in Nigeria should be profile, work experience, achievements (if any), trainings (if any), educational qualifications, bio-data, hobbies and referees. Please note that no particular format or template is cast in stone, every template can be amended to suit a particular requirement at any given time.
# How To Write A Good CV in Nigeria
Profile
We would rather prefer a profile to an objective. An objective is simply a goal while a profile is a brief description that summarizes your qualities, vis-a-vis where you are coming from and where you hope to be. It shouldn’t be more than two sentences or three short sentences at most.
Experience
Your experience(s) should indicate the name of the company, your designation/title, your job description and the duration of service. The address of the company is not compulsory except you are applying for a job outside of your state or country of residence. Your experience(s) should follow a chronological sequence (most recent to least recent). Also stick to the present tense when describing your current job description.
Achievements
This is a run-down of exceptional accomplishments you have bagged over a period of time. It can include a record breaking GP, an award, a surpassed target, an impeccable record and the likes. Your achievements are supposed to score you extra points with a potential employee but if it does otherwise, chuck it.
Bio-data
Your bio-data which consists of your date of birth, s*x and state of origin are not necessarily your most important details. Infact, it could serve as a disadvantage. Should you apply for a particular vacancy and you are past the age requirement, if your age is the first thing a potential employer sees, you are likely to be disqualified even before your CV is given a proper appraisal. So it’s best to keep those details at the tail end of your CV.
Points to bear in mind:
1. Chose bold and legible fonts
2. Use simple and unambiguous words. Leave no room for vagueness.
3. Have a focus and find a way to infuse your interest and specialization into your CV
4. Be accountable. Always account for time spent. Ensure your CV reflects that you are constantly adding value, honing your skills or getting more education.
5. Never include in your CV what you are not a 100% certain will be a plus.
6. Keep your CV to a maximum of three pages except you have had several years of experience.
7. Ensure that you can defend everything that you have written in your CV
8. Lastly, don’t forget to KISS! (Keep It Short and Simple!)
See you at the top! Share this let your friends also learn to write a good CV in Nigeria.
We believe that your CV is an account or narration of yourself. It is YOU talking about YOU in YOUR very own words and in the best way possible. It starts from who you are, to all the places you have been and how you have contributed to those places; your achievements, how you spent your time, and even personal details like your marital status and so on. Bearing this in mind, every detail and information provided must be meticulously considered and articulately presented. Put your most flattering qualities or accomplishments up front and then move gradually to less flattering qualities.
In writing your CV in Nigeria, presentation is everything! Your content, layout, template, font type, font size, line spacing, bullets and borders are all crucial in achieving a great looking CV. If someone has 3 years of experience and another has 6 years of experience, and they are both applying for the same job, the ONLY thing that differentiates them is the way they both present their work experiences.
The basic elements of your CV in Nigeria should be profile, work experience, achievements (if any), trainings (if any), educational qualifications, bio-data, hobbies and referees. Please note that no particular format or template is cast in stone, every template can be amended to suit a particular requirement at any given time.
# How To Write A Good CV in Nigeria
Profile
We would rather prefer a profile to an objective. An objective is simply a goal while a profile is a brief description that summarizes your qualities, vis-a-vis where you are coming from and where you hope to be. It shouldn’t be more than two sentences or three short sentences at most.
Experience
Your experience(s) should indicate the name of the company, your designation/title, your job description and the duration of service. The address of the company is not compulsory except you are applying for a job outside of your state or country of residence. Your experience(s) should follow a chronological sequence (most recent to least recent). Also stick to the present tense when describing your current job description.
Achievements
This is a run-down of exceptional accomplishments you have bagged over a period of time. It can include a record breaking GP, an award, a surpassed target, an impeccable record and the likes. Your achievements are supposed to score you extra points with a potential employee but if it does otherwise, chuck it.
Bio-data
Your bio-data which consists of your date of birth, s*x and state of origin are not necessarily your most important details. Infact, it could serve as a disadvantage. Should you apply for a particular vacancy and you are past the age requirement, if your age is the first thing a potential employer sees, you are likely to be disqualified even before your CV is given a proper appraisal. So it’s best to keep those details at the tail end of your CV.
Points to bear in mind:
1. Chose bold and legible fonts
2. Use simple and unambiguous words. Leave no room for vagueness.
3. Have a focus and find a way to infuse your interest and specialization into your CV
4. Be accountable. Always account for time spent. Ensure your CV reflects that you are constantly adding value, honing your skills or getting more education.
5. Never include in your CV what you are not a 100% certain will be a plus.
6. Keep your CV to a maximum of three pages except you have had several years of experience.
7. Ensure that you can defend everything that you have written in your CV
8. Lastly, don’t forget to KISS! (Keep It Short and Simple!)
See you at the top! Share this let your friends also learn to write a good CV in Nigeria.
ADVANTAGES OF FUEL SCARCITY IN NIGERIA.. LOL
1. Most compounds are noiseless because 'I better pass my neighbour' generators are on sabbatical leave.
2. Wives are happy because husbands who like hanging out are now staying at home with the family because drinks outside are not cold and no fuel to drive out.
3. All the house wives are cooking good food because no more Crunches and Mr Biggs.
4. Kids are reading their books since watching TV needs fuel.
5. No more congestion in network since many peoples phones are off due to low ba3.
6. Browsing & downloading is faster than before cause not much people are online.
7. Everyone sleeps very early now, No more late night movies.. Light no dey naa..
8. There are MORE PRAYERS & less distractions.
9. Parents are over-joyed because their children that were always online now concentrates on their studies.
10. Even God Himself is very happy when he saw people who haven't gone to church for months and years going to church and staying for both First and second services just to charge their phones.
2. Wives are happy because husbands who like hanging out are now staying at home with the family because drinks outside are not cold and no fuel to drive out.
3. All the house wives are cooking good food because no more Crunches and Mr Biggs.
4. Kids are reading their books since watching TV needs fuel.
5. No more congestion in network since many peoples phones are off due to low ba3.
6. Browsing & downloading is faster than before cause not much people are online.
7. Everyone sleeps very early now, No more late night movies.. Light no dey naa..
8. There are MORE PRAYERS & less distractions.
9. Parents are over-joyed because their children that were always online now concentrates on their studies.
10. Even God Himself is very happy when he saw people who haven't gone to church for months and years going to church and staying for both First and second services just to charge their phones.
Dating Mistakes Nigerian Guys do make that Crashes Relationships
It seems so many guys are so confused on dating to an extent where they
erroneously equate it with marriage! Dating is just a period where two
persons who find themselves attracted to each other try to know
themselves better; it could even happen in a way where either one of
them is not 'too interested' in the other person but as time goes on,
good attitude, genuine love and care, coupled with clear understanding
shown by either the guy or the lady could make both of them 'click' for
good.
On a serious note, some guys can actually go the extra mile by portraying some unnecessary and irrelevant attitude that can cause them emotional pains in return
Below are some common misconceptions guys have about dating which is not supposed to be a 'do-or-die' affair!!!
1) Policing a girl: Dating period shouldn't be a time for you to police a girl as if you work for the FBI! When a girl agrees to date you, it means she has interest in you and would like to know you better. It is not a period to show your skills in detective operations and start snooping around her, trying to know her every whereabout...how she eats, who she talks to, who she calls or who calls her. You might just end up selling yourself out as a desperate and jobless fellow who has nothing serious to attend to in life! Give yourself some self-worth, Inspector Idemudia!!!
2) Exercising ownership over her: This is one big misconception that most guys have! Remember you have not paid a dime on her...so why exercise ownership? Isn't it funny that as soon as she agrees to date you, you want her to cut off every raport she has with everyone? You erroneously think that when you claim ownership, it gives you a strong ground in her life! Wrong! You could even trigger hatred. Allow her to study you and other admirers to see who has the desired traits! This is far from her playing 'hard to get' because at this stage, she has already showed interest in you! A woman hardly respects a man who act as if his life is tied around her.
3) Imposing your personal policies on her: Again, you are not married to her. There is no need for you to impose your policies on her to accept. She has her own life to live and there is no signed certificate anywhere that she is your wife or she is going to be one in the nearest future. Even husbands are not suppose to impose policies on wives talk more of doing that at the dating stage!!! You might end up selling yourself out as an undesirable tyrant!!!
4) Taking the role of a husband financially: The dating period is not a time for you start catering for the financial responsibilities of a lady because you neither owe her any duty nor obligation to do that! It doesn't mean you should become mean as Caliban! You should show generosity to the one you are dating but don't make it seem as if you running to get to the finish line and at the same time, trying to carry somebody on your back all along. You sure know what that means It is difficult to stop when you have already started; it's better not to start what you cannot end. Never you use money to impress a woman you want to get serious with; instead, let her see the work or essence of the money in your life...then, she would'nt think of 'money' you'd have to spend but the 'success' you have been able to achieve. Don't forget, women love successful men and they are loyal to them and not just a money spender!!!
On a serious note, some guys can actually go the extra mile by portraying some unnecessary and irrelevant attitude that can cause them emotional pains in return
Below are some common misconceptions guys have about dating which is not supposed to be a 'do-or-die' affair!!!
1) Policing a girl: Dating period shouldn't be a time for you to police a girl as if you work for the FBI! When a girl agrees to date you, it means she has interest in you and would like to know you better. It is not a period to show your skills in detective operations and start snooping around her, trying to know her every whereabout...how she eats, who she talks to, who she calls or who calls her. You might just end up selling yourself out as a desperate and jobless fellow who has nothing serious to attend to in life! Give yourself some self-worth, Inspector Idemudia!!!
2) Exercising ownership over her: This is one big misconception that most guys have! Remember you have not paid a dime on her...so why exercise ownership? Isn't it funny that as soon as she agrees to date you, you want her to cut off every raport she has with everyone? You erroneously think that when you claim ownership, it gives you a strong ground in her life! Wrong! You could even trigger hatred. Allow her to study you and other admirers to see who has the desired traits! This is far from her playing 'hard to get' because at this stage, she has already showed interest in you! A woman hardly respects a man who act as if his life is tied around her.
3) Imposing your personal policies on her: Again, you are not married to her. There is no need for you to impose your policies on her to accept. She has her own life to live and there is no signed certificate anywhere that she is your wife or she is going to be one in the nearest future. Even husbands are not suppose to impose policies on wives talk more of doing that at the dating stage!!! You might end up selling yourself out as an undesirable tyrant!!!
4) Taking the role of a husband financially: The dating period is not a time for you start catering for the financial responsibilities of a lady because you neither owe her any duty nor obligation to do that! It doesn't mean you should become mean as Caliban! You should show generosity to the one you are dating but don't make it seem as if you running to get to the finish line and at the same time, trying to carry somebody on your back all along. You sure know what that means It is difficult to stop when you have already started; it's better not to start what you cannot end. Never you use money to impress a woman you want to get serious with; instead, let her see the work or essence of the money in your life...then, she would'nt think of 'money' you'd have to spend but the 'success' you have been able to achieve. Don't forget, women love successful men and they are loyal to them and not just a money spender!!!
Woman Hacks Husband To Death 16- Days After Wedding
The details of this report are still sketchy but according to a Facebook user from Congo who broke the News, his brother's wife hacked him to death 16 days after their wedding. It was reported that they got married on the 11th of March and she killed him on the 29th of March 2016.
See Countries With Free Tuition Education
University fees are exponentially rising across the globe and in this
scenario the concept of a free or low-cost degree seems like an
impossible dream. It is indeed heartening to note that there are
countries in this planet who value education and governments in such
countries offer schemes and subsidies for an almost-free or at least an
affordable education or degree. Some of the countries are listed below:
Germany:
There is a lot of interest picked up among Indian students to study in Germany in recent times. This is because the German government does not levy any tuition fees in public universities both for German and foreign students. Only a nominal amount of fees towards administrative costs are collected from students. If you succeed in finding a German university of your choice for free, then you will need to budget for living costs including food, clothing and accommodation.
Another critical point of importance is that most of these free courses are in the German language and requires a proficiency in German to get admission. However, driven by demand, there are a number of English-based courses which are being designed in the country especially for international students.
Low-cost education, strong economy and an excellent higher education system is very appealing for pursing studies in Germany, both for students and parents. Germany comes third after US and UK in terms of perceived quality of education. There are many German universities that are considered among the best in the world including Heidelberg University, Ludwig-Maximilians University in Munich, Technical University of Munich, University of Hamburg, Karlsruhe Institute of Technology and many more.
France:
France also offers nearly-free education for both domestic and international students regardless of nationality. Although the tuition fees are not entirely waived as in Germany, it is only a small fraction of what is normally charged in other paid universities. However, it is pertinent to note that specialized courses such as medicine and engineering charge a little more yet well below what US or UK fees. Some of these courses need students to appear for an entrance test.
Here too, a large percentage of low-cost degrees are taught in French, but just like in Germany, there are a lot more English-based programs that are being created for global students. It is important to know that if you are keen on pursuing your studies in one of the grandes ecoles of France, then the tuition fees cost could vary quite a bit.
While course fees are nearly negligible, standard of living in France is quite high and cost of food, clothing and accommodation can be substantial high especially in Paris. Yet, since it is cheaper than London laying across the Channel, many French universities are among the top universities of the world including University of Paris-Sorbonne, University of Paris-Sud, the Paris Descartes University, University of Strasbourg and many more.
Belgium:
Belgium offers complete waiver of tuition fees for EU students, however, the fees for international students are also in the affordable range. Some of the universities here include University of Leuven – KU Leuven and University of Antwerp.
Czech Republic:
Students both domestic and international who are fluent in Czech can study here for free. Those who wish to pursue education in English can also do so at affordable rates. Living costs are more economical in this country than most other European country. Some of universities in this country are Charles University in Prague and Masaryk University.
Nordic Countries:
The Northern European countries, dubbed commonly as Nordic countries, famous for their natural beauty, high quality of life and stunning locales and liberal political policies also offer students free education regardless of nationality. Four of the five Nordic countries including Sweden, Norway, Finland and Denmark completely waive tuition fees while Iceland does charge tuition fees. These 4 countries have certain prerequisites to fulfill for the free seats.
Norway offers free courses at the undergraduate programs only in Norwegian and a proficiency in the language is a must for admissions. However, masters and PhD courses (which are also free) are available in English. Some of the universities in Sweden include University of Oslo and Norwegian University of Science and Technology.
Sweden and Denmark extend free education only to students from the European Union, Switzerland and European Economic Area. Others will have to pay the requisite tuition fees for all courses in the undergraduate and master’s levels. However, PhD programs are completely funded in both these countries. Candidates pursuing PhD programs not only get free education but also get paid a salary or a stipend.
Some of the universities in these countries include University of Copenhagen, Aarhus University, Stockholm University, Lund University, Uppsala University and Royal Institute of Technology.
Germany:
There is a lot of interest picked up among Indian students to study in Germany in recent times. This is because the German government does not levy any tuition fees in public universities both for German and foreign students. Only a nominal amount of fees towards administrative costs are collected from students. If you succeed in finding a German university of your choice for free, then you will need to budget for living costs including food, clothing and accommodation.
Another critical point of importance is that most of these free courses are in the German language and requires a proficiency in German to get admission. However, driven by demand, there are a number of English-based courses which are being designed in the country especially for international students.
Low-cost education, strong economy and an excellent higher education system is very appealing for pursing studies in Germany, both for students and parents. Germany comes third after US and UK in terms of perceived quality of education. There are many German universities that are considered among the best in the world including Heidelberg University, Ludwig-Maximilians University in Munich, Technical University of Munich, University of Hamburg, Karlsruhe Institute of Technology and many more.
France:
France also offers nearly-free education for both domestic and international students regardless of nationality. Although the tuition fees are not entirely waived as in Germany, it is only a small fraction of what is normally charged in other paid universities. However, it is pertinent to note that specialized courses such as medicine and engineering charge a little more yet well below what US or UK fees. Some of these courses need students to appear for an entrance test.
Here too, a large percentage of low-cost degrees are taught in French, but just like in Germany, there are a lot more English-based programs that are being created for global students. It is important to know that if you are keen on pursuing your studies in one of the grandes ecoles of France, then the tuition fees cost could vary quite a bit.
While course fees are nearly negligible, standard of living in France is quite high and cost of food, clothing and accommodation can be substantial high especially in Paris. Yet, since it is cheaper than London laying across the Channel, many French universities are among the top universities of the world including University of Paris-Sorbonne, University of Paris-Sud, the Paris Descartes University, University of Strasbourg and many more.
Belgium:
Belgium offers complete waiver of tuition fees for EU students, however, the fees for international students are also in the affordable range. Some of the universities here include University of Leuven – KU Leuven and University of Antwerp.
Czech Republic:
Students both domestic and international who are fluent in Czech can study here for free. Those who wish to pursue education in English can also do so at affordable rates. Living costs are more economical in this country than most other European country. Some of universities in this country are Charles University in Prague and Masaryk University.
Nordic Countries:
The Northern European countries, dubbed commonly as Nordic countries, famous for their natural beauty, high quality of life and stunning locales and liberal political policies also offer students free education regardless of nationality. Four of the five Nordic countries including Sweden, Norway, Finland and Denmark completely waive tuition fees while Iceland does charge tuition fees. These 4 countries have certain prerequisites to fulfill for the free seats.
Norway offers free courses at the undergraduate programs only in Norwegian and a proficiency in the language is a must for admissions. However, masters and PhD courses (which are also free) are available in English. Some of the universities in Sweden include University of Oslo and Norwegian University of Science and Technology.
Sweden and Denmark extend free education only to students from the European Union, Switzerland and European Economic Area. Others will have to pay the requisite tuition fees for all courses in the undergraduate and master’s levels. However, PhD programs are completely funded in both these countries. Candidates pursuing PhD programs not only get free education but also get paid a salary or a stipend.
Some of the universities in these countries include University of Copenhagen, Aarhus University, Stockholm University, Lund University, Uppsala University and Royal Institute of Technology.
2016 WAEC may/June Sample Questions, Schemes for All Subjects
Below is the list of the Waec Schemes / Sample questions for selected subjects.
Waec Scheme for Mathematics
There will be two papers, Papers 1 and 2, both of which must be taken.
PAPER 1: will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions, drawn from the common areas of the syllabus, to be answered in 1½ hours for 50 marks.
PAPER 2: will consist of thirteen essay questions in two sections – Sections A and B, to be answered in 2½ hours for 100 marks. Candidates will be required to answer ten questions in all.
Section A - Will consist of five compulsory questions, elementary in nature carrying a total of 40 marks. The questions will be drawn from the common areas of the syllabus.
Section B - will consist of eight questions of greater length and difficulty. The questions shall include a maximum of two which shall be drawn from parts of the syllabuses which may not be peculiar to candidates’ home countries. Candidates will be expected to answer five questions for 60marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. If log10X = 0. 7549 and log10Y = 0.3285, find log10XY.
A. 0.4256
B. 0.2479
C. 1.0826
D. 2.2956
2. Convert 13.025 to base 10.
A. 8.08
B. 8.80
C. 808
D. 880
3. Simplify : 3x+1(2x-1) .
2-1 (6x)
A. 6
B. 3
C. 3x
D. 2x
4. A bonus issue of ordinary shares on the basis of three new shares for every five held has been made by a company. What will be the increase in the number of shares of an investor who originally had 75,000 ordinary shares?
A. 15,000
B. 25,000
C. 45,000
D. 75,000
5. Find the equation of the line which is perpendicular to y = and which passes through the point (1, 3).
A. y = -3x
B. y = 3x
C. y = -3x + 6
D. y = 3x – 6
6. Which of the following is represented by the shaded region of the Venn
diagram below?2016 Waec Scheme for Mathematics
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)[/size]
English Language WAEC Sample Questions
There will be three papers – Papers 1, 2 and 3, all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be combined in a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of eighty multiple choice questions, all of which should be answered within 1 hour for 40 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of five essay topics and a passage each to test candidates’ comprehension and summary skills. Candidates will be expected to write an essay on one of the topics and answer all the questions on Comprehension and Summary passages. The paper will last 2 hours and carry 100 marks.
PAPER 3: Will consist of sixty multiple choice items on Test of Orals for candidates in Nigeria and Liberia, and that on Listening Comprehension for candidates in Ghana, The Gambia and Sierra Leone. All the questions will be answered in 45 minutes for 30 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
SECTION 1
In each of the following sentences, there is one underlined word and one gap. From the list of words lettered A to D, choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the sentence.
1. Most African countries face poverty while few enjoy ……………………….
A. influence
B. money
C. affluence
D. power
2. Last year our farmers cultivated more crops than they……………………….
A. destroyed
B. uprooted
C. harvested
D. yielded
SECTION 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes each of the following sentences.
3. There would have been a riot in our school but for the timely……………..of our staff.
A. intervention
B. interruption
C. interference
D. invasion
4. The armed robbers ……………every room in the bank to look for money.
A. explored
B. ransacked
C. raked
D. swept
SECTION 3
After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations is given. Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence.
5. Ade is too clever by half. This means that Ade is
A. far cleverer than others.
B. actually very stupid in his behaviour.
C. annoyingly clever.
D. behaving to be clever but is not.
6. Ameh is really being economical with the truth. This means that Ameh
A. is being praised for being honest.
B. does not know enough.
C. knows more than he is prepared to say.
D. is not telling the truth.
SECTION 4
From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, chose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is used in the sentence.
7. By failing to attend the interview, Idoko has lost a golden opportunity.
A. blessed
B. bright
C. good
D. delightful
8. I hope the principal would be gracious enough to forgive us.
A. cordial
B. polite
C. merciful
D. gentle
SECTION 5
From the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes each of the following sentences.
9. A good citizen abides ...............the rules of the land.
A. with
B. in
C. at
D. by
10. Since his swearing in, the governor ................... .his hometown.
A. had not been visiting
B. has not visited
C. did not visit
D. had not visited
PAPER 2
SECTION A
(50 MARKS)
Answer one question only from this section. All questions carry equal marks. Your answer should not be less than 450 words.
You are advised to spend about 50 minutes on this section.
1. Your friend in another school has requested information about your school to enable him to decide on moving over to your school. Write a letter to him discussing at least three areas in which your school excels.
2. Write an article for publication in your school magazine, discussing the reasons why children in your area drop out of school and suggesting ways of minimizing it.
3. As the president of your youth club, write a letter to the chairman of your Local Government Association complaining about the increasing rate of child labour and suggesting ways of curbing it.
4. You are the chief speaker in a debate on the topic: Women should not be in paid employment while still bearing children. Write your contribution for or against the topic.
5. Write a story that ends with the words: That experience will linger on my mind for a long time.
SECTION B
COMPREHENSION
(20 marks)
Dele groaned and got out of bed. There was no clock on the mantel piece and the room was still dark, but he knew that he was already late for work, probably by an hour. He was a commercial bus driver and had to get started as early as 5.00a.m. and go almost non-stop till about 9.00 p.m. to be able to make the daily returns that the bus owner demanded.
On the previous day, he had attended an all-night party – a late uncle’s burial ceremony – where he had drunk himself almost senseless before crawling home in the early hours of the morning. Now, he got up shakily, splashed water on his face and hurried off to work, but not before carefully fastening on his upper left arm the amulet he had always worn for protection against accidents. A similar amulet hung concealed under the steering column of his bus. On his way, still feeling groggy, he caught his left toe against a stump and had some misgiving. It was a bad sign, and he was supposed to go back home and then set out again. But there was no time for that now, so he hurried on.
At the bus station, Dele quickly loaded his bus and sped off without any of the necessary checks on the vehicle. He had to make up for lost time. It was the rush hour, so the bus was overloaded as it often was, with many passengers hanging on to the doors. The tyres were threadbare, the brakes were faulty and the road was wet, but, still feeling a little sleepy, Dele sped on. Many passengers protested about his reckless driving, but he would not listen. After all, didn’t he have protection against accident?
As the vehicle took the last turn before its destination, Dele saw a broken-down truck blocking his side of the road. Under normal circumstances, he could have brought the bus safely to a halt, bur the circumstances were far from normal. The careering bus hit the parked vehicle, swerved wildly across the road and plunged into a ditch.
Dele’s surprise before he sank into oblivion was the failure of his supposedly protective amulets.
(a) Why did Dele wake up late?
(b) …he caught his left toe against a stump and had some misgivings. What does this tell us about Dele?
(c) Give two reasons why Dele drove recklessly.
(d) Why was Dele unable to stop his faulty vehicle?
(e) What was Dele’s condition after the accident?
(f) After all, didn’t he have protection against accident? What literary device is used in this expression?
(g) …wildly across the road…
(i) What grammatical name is given to the expression as it is used in the passage?
(ii) What is its function?
(h) For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and can replace it in the passage:
i. probably;
ii. returns;
iii. groggy;
iv. misgiving
v. threadbare
vi. reckless.
SECTION C
(SUMMARY)
[30 MARKS]
You are advised to spend about 50 minutes on this section.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.
You cannot expect to go through life without meeting problems. Difficulties, perplexities and frustrations are an inevitable part of human experience. Accepting this idea of the inevitability of problems will help you to approach them in a robust frame of mind rather than thinking that you are a victim specially singled out by malignant fate.
When confronted with a problem, the first thing to do is gather all relevant data to get acquainted with the facts of the case. Then write down exactly what the problem is, stating it simply in black and white. This gives you something definite with which to come to terms. The problem is assessed and you will now have something concrete to deal with.
Next, give serious thought to the problem, making sure that such thought does not degenerate into worry as worry accomplishes nothing. Aim at clear, dispassionate thought, viewing the problem as if it were a friend’s and not your own. Look at it from all angles and from the point of view of all concerned. You court disaster if you are entirely selfish in your outlook. The single important purpose of all this is to discover all possible solutions to the problem.
Having examined the problem broadly and impartially, carefully examine all the possible solutions or courses of action. The knowledge that you have done this will keep you from useless regrets later, when you can remind yourself that all courses of action were examined and you chose what appeared to be the best. Next, eliminate all proposed solutions which are seen on further thought to be impracticable.
You will now find that your list has been whittled down to two or three possibilities. At this stage it is often a good plan to get out into the open air. Go for a walk or a ride, preferably somewhere with wide horizons. There, out in the open, review the problem afresh. You will find it appears less formidable. Ask yourself how the difficulty will appear in ten years’ time or even one! This fresh review will enable you to make a final choice as you turn to the remaining solutions and, before you return home, decide which one you are going to adopt. As you go to sleep that night, let your last thoughts be upon your decision. If, in the morning, you still feel it is the best one to take, go ahead.
If you have a friend who is capable of giving sound advice, consult him. Do this before your final decision, so that you will have the benefit of his views before you decide. Talking things over with another is always a great help. It enables you to isolate the problem and to decide which on which factors are important. Even if the friend offers no advice, a sympathetic ear will help you. Furthermore, as you describe to your friend the courses open to you, you will see them in clearer light. Some will appear impossible even as you speak. Alternatively, one will appear most attractive.
In dealing with problems, remember the time factor. Although some problems solve themselves in time, and delaying tactics is therefore the best form of action for them, most other problems generally get more complicated the longer they are left. You should therefore get to grips with the problems immediately they occur.
All told, reasonable foresight and imagination can prevent many problems ever arising. Tact, thoughtfulness and responsible conduct can also keep life largely problem-free.
In six sentences, one for each, summarize the steps to be taken when faced with a problem and state why each step is necessary.
PAPER 3
(TEST 0F ORALS)
For candidates in Nigeria and Liberia only
SECTION 1
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letters underlined.
1. wit
A. fright
B. wheat
C. tree
D. market
2. look
A. glue
B. you
C. cup
D. curious
SECTION 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same consonant sound(s) as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.
3. dance
A. handsome
B. sandwich
C. adjective
D. pounding
4. plucked
A. smiled
B. slammed
C. luck
D. table
SECTION 3
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that rhymes with the given word.
5. carrier
A. area
B. barrier
C. serious
D. ravine
6. drought
A. crowd
B. nought
C. shout
D. taught
SECTION 4
In each of the following questions, the main/primary stress is indicated by writing the syllable on which it occurs in capital letters. From the words lettered A to D, choose the one that has the correct stress.
7. acrimony
A. A-cri-mo-ny
B. a-CRI-mo-ny
C. a-cri-MO-ny
D. a-cri-mo-NY
SECTION 5:
In the following options lettered A to D, all the words except one have the same stress pattern. Identify the one with the different stress pattern.
8. A. sanctify
B. promising
C. notify
D. organic
SECTION 6
In each of the following sentences, the word that receives the emphatic stress is written in capital letters. From the questions lettered A to D, choose the one to which the given sentence is the appropriate answer.
9. The DOCTOR examined the patient with a stethoscope.
A. Did the teacher examine the patient with a stethoscope?
B. Did the doctor cure the patient with a stethoscope?
C. Did the doctor examine the nurse with a stethoscope?
D. Did the doctor examine the patient with a telescope?
SECTION 7
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that contains the sound represented by the given phonetic symbol.
10. / ǝ /
A. accurate
B. nephew
C. ageless
D. waddle
Waec Literature in English Sample Questions
LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH EXAMINATION SCHEME
There will be three papers – Papers 1, 2 and 3. Papers 1 and 2 will be combined in a 1 hour 15 minutes composite paper and will be taken at one sitting
Paper 1 will be a multiple choice objective test. It will contain fifty questions distributed as follows:
(a) Twenty questions on General Knowledge of Literature;
(b) Five questions on an unseen prose passage;
(c) Five questions on an unseen poem;
(d) Twenty context questions on the prescribed Shakespearean text.
Candidates will be required to answer all the questions within 1 hour for 50 marks.
Paper 2 will be an essay test with two sections, Sections A and B. Section A will be on African Prose and Section B on Non African Prose.
Two essay questions will be set on each of the novels prescribed for study. Candidates shall be required to answer one question only from each section within 1 hour 15 minutes for 50 marks.
Paper 3 will be on the Drama and Poetry components of the syllabus. It will be put into four sections, Sections A, B. C and D as follows:
Section A: African Drama
Section B: Non-African Drama
Section C: African Poetry
Section D: Non-African Poetry
There shall be two questions on each of the prescribed texts for each section.
Candidates shall be required to answer one question from each of the sections, making a total of four questions. The paper will take 2 hours 30 minutes to complete and will carry 50 marks.
Note:
(i) The Unseen Prose passage for Paper 1 shall be about 120 – 150 words long.
(ii) Only context questions shall be set on the Shakespearean text. The context questions will test such items as theme, characterization, style and setting in the Shakespearean text.
(iii) No essay question shall be set on the Shakespearean text.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
[General Knowledge on Literature]
1. ____________ is sung to put a child to sleep.
A. A ballad
B. A lullaby
C. A dirge
D. A pastoral
2. In drama the purposeful use of gestures and actions is
A. soliloquy.
B. mime.
C. eulogy.
D. aside.
3. Imagery in a literary work
A. creates suspense.
B. accentuates humour.
C. heightens the dramatic atmosphere.
D. appeals to the senses.
4. All the world’s a stage, is an example of
A. metaphor.
B. paradox.
C. allusion.
D. personification.
5. _________ is the time and place in which the action of a narrative takes place.
A. Denouement
B. Mood
C. Setting
D. Plot
6. A tale in which the characters are often animals is
A. a fable.
B. an epic.
C. a ballad.
D. an ode.
7. Love indeed is anything,
Yet indeed is nothing
illustrates the use of
A. apostrophe.
B. antithesis.
C. oxymoron.
D. parody.
8. A reader’s curiosity is sustained through
A. suspense.
B. conflict.
C. flashback.
D. climax.
9. A hilarious and absurd play can be referred to as
A. a farce.
B. a pantomime.
C. an ode.
D. a comedy.
.
10. It is a bitter sweet experience is an example of
A. metonymy.
B. pun.
C. onomatopoeia.
D. oxymoron.
PAPER 2
SECTION A
AFRICAN PROSE
ASARE KONADU: A Woman in her Prime
1. Discuss the relationship between Pokuwaa and Koramoa.
ADICHIE CHIMAMANDA NGOZI: Purple Hibiscus
2. Comment on the significance of the Palm Sunday clash.
SECTION B
NON-AFRICAN PROSE
WILLIAM GOLDING: Lord of the Flies
3. Discuss three symbols used in the novel.
ERNEST HEMINGWAY: The Old Man and the Sea
4. What are the consequences of Santiago’s pride in the novel?
PAPER 3
(DRAMA & POETRY)
SECTION A
AFRICAN DRAMA
KOBINA SEKYI: The Blinkards
1. To what extend is Mrs.Borofosem a blind imitator of the English ways of life?
FEMI OSOFISAN: Women of Owu
2. Discuss the plight of women in the play.
SECTION B
NON- AFRICAN DRAMA
BERNARD SHAW: Arms and the Man
3. Comment on the relationship between the Petkoffs and their servants.
OSCAR WILDE: The Importance of Being Earnest
4. Analyse the deceptive nature of Algernon.
SECTION C
AFRICAN POETRY
5. Discuss the poet’s diction in the “The Fence”.
SECTION D
NON-AFRICAN POETRY
6. Examine the theme of loneliness in “Daffodils”.
CRK CRS Scheme Waec Sample Questions
There will be two papers, Papers 1and 2, both of which will be a composite paper to be taken
at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple choice objective questions all of which must be
answered within 1 hour for 40 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of nine essay-type questions. Candidates will be required to
answer four questions within 2 hours for 60 marks.
The questions will be arranged in sections as follows:
Section A: Themes from the Old Testament - four questions.
Section B: Themes from the Synoptic Gospels - three questions.
Section C: Themes from the Acts of the Apostles, James and I Peter
- two questions.
Candidates will be required to answer four questions in all, choosing at least one
question from each section and the fourth question from either Section A or
Section B.
The Revised Standard Version of the Bible will be used in setting of questions.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. According to Hosea, Israel’s relationship with God is that of
A. a faithful wife with a faithless husband.
B. the love between a woman and her husband.
C. a faithless wife and a loving husband.
D. a repentant wife and her forgiving husband.
2. King Josiah was regarded as a defender of Jewish religion because he
A. killed all the priests of Baal.
B. converted all the worshippers of Baal.
C. built a new temple in Jerusalem.
D. reformed the corrupt religion of Israel.
3. When David was informed that the child born to him by Bethsheba had died, he
A. sought Nathan’s counsel on what to do.
B. anointed himself and worshipped the lord.
C. wept throughout the day.
D. tore his robe and went to his house.
4. Which of the following tribes accompanied Deborah and Barak to the war against
Jabin and Sisera?
A. Ephraim and Dan
B. Naphtali and Zebulun
C. Issachar and Reuben
D. Ephraim and Benjamin
5. The place where Moses experienced that the burning bush was not consumed was
A. Meriba.
B. Horeb.
C. Bethel.
D. Nebo.
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
SECTION A
[Themes from the Old Testament]
1. (a) How did\Solomon first apply his wisdom?
(b) In what three ways can God’s wisdom be applied?
2. (a) Narrate the events leading to Gehazi’s acquisition of leprosy.
(b) State two lessons that can be derived from the story.
SECTION B
[Themes from the Synoptic Gospels]
3. (a) Highlight the events that took place when Jesus was brought
before Caiaphas, the High Priest.
(b) State three consequences of bearing false witness.
SECTION C
[Themes from the Acts of the Apostles, James and I Peter]
4. (a) Outline the teaching of James on partiality.
(b) Give three reasons why Christians should avoid partiality.
2016 Waec Sample Questions for Integrated Science
There will be three papers, Papers 1, 2 and 3 all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be a
composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions all of which must be
answered within 1 hour for 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of six essay-type questions. Candidates will be required to answer four
questions within 1 hour 30 minutes for 20 marks each.
PAPER 3: Will consist of four questions on test of practical work. Candidates will be required
to answer all the questions within 2 hours for 60 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVE TEST)
1. The pH of water is
A. 2.
B. 5.
C. 7.
D. 14.
2. One characteristic feature of Kingdom Animalia is the possession of
A. celluse cell wall.
B. nervous system.
C. starch granules.
D. chlorophyll.
3. Which of the following statements explains the occurrence of large number of carbon
compounds? Carbon
A. is present in all living things
B. atom is tetravalent element
C. compounds dissolve readily in organic solvents
D. compounds burn readily in air
4. The instrument used to measure diameter of a thin wire is
A. thread and rule.
B. engineer’s callipers.
C. micrometer screw gauge.
D. spherometer.
5. A species X has 16 protons, 17 neutrons and 18 electrons. X must be
A. neutral atom equal of a metal.
B. a cation of two positive charges.
C. an anion of two negative charges.
D. an anion of one negative charge.
6. The main effect of diseases on crops is
A. reduction in photosynthesis.
B. inhability of roots to absorb water.
C. shortening of internodes.
D. reduction in the yield of produce.
7. A car fuse is marked 15A and operates on a 12 volt battery. Determine the resistance of
the fuse wire.
A. 0.8 ohms
B. 1.3 ohms
C. 3.00 ohms
D. 27.00 ohms
8. Rabbits are housed in a
A. pen.
B. hutch.
C. kraal.
D. sty.
9. Which of the following parts of a mammalian skin protects the tissues beneath from
mechanical injury?
A. Dermis
B. Cornified layer
C. Granular layer
D. Malphigian layer
10. An element which can be considered as a semi-metal is
A. argon.
B. carbon.
C. silicon.
D. sodium.
11. Respiration is essential to life since
A. food is oxidised.
B. oxygen is used up.
C. waste products are eliminated.
D. energy is released.
12. Which of the following statements about the importance of mulching are correct?
I. Prevention of the surface of soil from caking
II. Conservation of moisture
III. Washing away of dissolved nutrients
IV. Keeping the soil cool
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
13. A pulley system is used to lift a load of 300N. If the effort applied is 150N, determine the
mechanical advantage of the system.
A. 0.5
B. 2.0
C. 150
D. 450
14. The easiest method of fertilizer application is
A. band application.
B. broadcasting.
C. ring application.
D. spraying.
15. Which of the following characteristic features are associated with insect-pollinated
flower?
I. Brightly coloured petals
II. Large petals
III. **** guider
IV. Pendulous stamen
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
1. (a) (i) What is a transistor?
(ii) Explain how a transistor behaves as a switch.
[5 marks]
(b) (i) Explain the term poultry.
(ii) State four reasons for keeping poultry.
[6 marks]
(c) Explain the following terms:
(i) population;
(ii) species.
[5 marks]
(d) (i) What are x-rays?
(ii) State two dangers associated with over exposure to x-rays.
[4marks]
2. (a) (i) What is plant tissue culture?
(ii) State three advantages of propagating a plant by tissue culture.
[5 marks]
(b) (i) Explain the term parturition as applied to animal production.
(ii) State three signs shown by an animal when parturition is about to occur.
[5 marks]
(c) Draw and label a ray diagram to show how the image of a point object is seen in a
plane mirror. [5 marks]
(d) A piece of zinc metal was placed in a beaker containing dilute hydrochloric acid.
(i) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction that took place.
(ii) If 10.4g of zinc was placed in the hydrochloric acid, determine the
amount, in moles of hydrochloric acid, that would be required to react with the
zinc completely.
[Zn = 65.4, H = 1, Cl = 35.5]
[5 marks]
3. (a) Explain the following terms as applied to sound waves:
(i) frequency;
(ii) loudness;
(iii) pitch.
[6 marks]
(b) (i) What is crop rotation?
(ii) State two advantages of crop rotation.
[4 marks]
(c) (i) List three kingdoms used in the classification
of living things.
(ii) State two reasons for classification of living things.
[5 marks]
(d) (i) Explain briefly how each of the following processes occurs:
(i) melting of a solid;
(ii) condensation of a gas.
[5 marks]
PAPER 3 (TEST OF PRACTICAL WORK)
1. A stock solution of 1M HCl was prepared by dissolving 3.65 g of HCl in 100 cm3 of
distilled water. 5 cm3 of the stock solution was put into each of the five measuring
cylinders labelled V1, V2 V3, V4, and V5 and diluted with different amounts of distilled
water to the volumes shown in the diagram below.
(a) (i) Read and record the volumes of the solution in each of the measuring
cylinders labelled V1, V2 V3, V4, andV5 respectively.
(ii) Determine the volume of water used to dilute 1M HCl in each of the
measuring cylinders. [ 8 marks]
(b) Calculate the concentration of solution in measuring cylinder V4 in
(i) mol dm-3
(ii) g dm-3
[6 marks]
2. The Figures F and G below illustrate organisms associated with farm animals.
Study the figures carefully and answer the questions that follow
(a) Identify organisms F and G. [ 2 marks]
(b) Which group of parasites do organisms F and G belong to?
[2 marks]
(c) State two symptoms each of the infestation of organisms F and G on the
animals they inhabit.
[4 marks]
(d) Briefly explain two common methods each of controlling organisms F and
G. [8 marks]
Waec Scheme: Biology Sample Questions
There will be three papers: Papers 1, 2 and 3, all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be
a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions drawn from
Section A of the syllabus (the section of the syllabus which is common to
all countries). It will carry 50 marks and last for 50 minutes.
PAPER 2: Will consist of six essay questions drawn from the entire syllabus. The
paper will be put into three sections, Sections A, B and C.
Section A: Will consist of four questions drawn from Section A of the syllabus.
Section B: Will be for candidates in Ghana only and will be drawn from Section
B of the syllabus (ie the section of the syllabus perculiar to Ghana). It
will consist of short-structured questions.
Section C: Will be for candidates in Nigeria, Sierra Leone, The Gambia and
Liberia and will be drawn from Section C of the syllabus (ie the section
of the syllabus containing material for those countries only). It will also
consist of short-structured questions.
Candidates will be expected to answer two questions from Section A and all the
short-structured questions from either Section B or Section C.
Each question in Section A will carry 20 marks while the compulsory short-
structured questions in Sections B and C will carry 30 marks. The total score will
be 70 marks. The paper shall take 1 hour 40 minutes.
PAPER 3: Will be a practical test (for school candidates) or a test of practical work
(for private candidates) lasting 2 hours and consisting of three sections:
Sections A, B and C.
Section A: This will consist of two compulsory questions drawn from Section A
of the syllabus, each carrying 25 marks.
Section B: This will be for candidates in Ghana only. It will consist of one
question drawn from Section B of the syllabus and will carry 30 marks.
Section C: This will be for candidates in Nigeria, Sierra Leone, The Gambia and
Liberia. It will consist of one question drawn from Section C of the
syllabus and will carry 30 marks.
Candidates will be expected to answer all the questions in Section A and one
question in either Section B or C. The paper will carry a total score of 80 marks.
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVES)
1. The organelle in eukaryotic cells which is involved in the intracellular digestion of food is
A. Golgi body.
B. lysosome.
C. mitochondrion.
D. ribosome.
2. Which of the following structures is common to Amoeba, Paramecium and Euglena?
A. Anal pore
B. Contractile vacuole
C. Flagellum
D. Oral groove
3. The tertiary consumer within the web is
A. grasshopper.
B. rabbit.
C. man.
D. lion.
4. A company was prohibited from producing bags made from leopard skin as a measure of
conserving
A. water.
B. forest.
C. wildlife.
D. land.
5. An allele constantly expressed in the appearance of an organism is said to be
A. recessive.
B. dominant.
C. hybrid.
D. sex linked.
6. A woman with blood group A is married to a man with blood group B. Both have an offspring
who could donate blood to both parents. The genotype of both parents must be
PAPER 2 (ESSAY) [30 MARKS]
1. a) Name two types of aquatic habitats. [2 marks]
For each habitat you named in (a) above, state
i. two plants;
ii. two animals, found in the habitat. [8 marks]
b) Explain briefly the following terms:
i. Allele;
ii. Phenotype. [4 marks]
c) State the feeding habit of the following organisms and two modifications each
that help them adapt to it.
i. Mosquito larva;
ii. Tapeworm. [8 marks]
d) Explain how sewage causes water pollution [6 marks]
e) List two processes that release carbon to the environment [2 marks]
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
1 a) i. Identify the specimens labelled A to E [5 marks]
ii. State the role of each specimen you have identified. [5 marks]
iii. Mention the advantages they have derived from living together as a group. [2 marks]
b) Observe specimens F and G carefully and use them to answer the
questions that follow.
i. Classify specimens F and G under the headings phylum and class. [4 marks]
ii. Make a labelled drawing 8-10 cm long of the lateral view of specimen G. [11 marks]
iii. State three adaptations of specimen G to its environment. [3 marks]
Sample Questions for Financial Accounting
There will be two papers – Paper 1 and Paper 2, both of which will constitute a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will comprise fifty multiple choice questions to be taken in 1 hour for 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will be made up of two sections: Sections A and B and will last 2½ hours.
Section A: Will contain five essay questions on theory of financial accounting. Candidates will be required to answer two out of the four questions for 15 marks each.
Section B: Will contain five essay questions on financial accounting practice. Candidates will be required to answer three out of the questions for 15 marks each.
SAMPLE QUESTION
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVE)
1. The double entry for a cheque returned by a bank to a customer marked “refer to drawer” is debit
A. bank, credit debtor.
B. bank, credit bad debt expenses.
C. bad debt expenses, credit bank.
D. debtor, credit bank.
2. Which of the following is a characteristic of joint venture?
A. The activities are of short term duration.
B. Individual maintains separate account.
C. There is perpetual succession.
D. There is limitation to membership.
3. The person who retains ownership of goods on consignment is
A. commission agent.
B. del-credere agent.
C. consignor.
D. consignee.
4. The computer program instructions are read into the
A. output unit.
B. input unit
C. storage unit.
D. central processing unit.
5. In Contract Accounts, retention money refers to the
A. amount due to the contractor but held back by the customer.
B. progressive payments made by the customer to the contractor.
C. contractor’s profit on the contract.
D. amount overpaid by the customer to the contractors.
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
SECTION A
THEORY OF FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
1. (a) Distinguish between reserves and provisions. (6 marks)
(b) Explain the following giving one example in each case:
(i) Depreciation;
(ii) Depletion;
(iii) Amortization. (9 marks)
2. (a) What is value added tax?
(b) Distinguish between input vat and output vat.
(c) State four features of Value Added Tax. (15 marks)
3. Explain the following terms as they are used in contract accounts:
(a) Notional profit;
(b) Retention money;
(c) Progress payments;
(d) Work certified;
(e) Work-in-progress. (15marks)
SECTION B
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING PRACTICE.
4. The following information is extracted from the book of Love Club as at December 2012:
Receipts and Payments account
GH¢ GH¢
Cash at bank 1/1/1012 2,120 Expense on dance 940
Subscription received 5,910 Repairs 220
Sale of dance tickets 730 Printing and stationery 310
Bar takings 4,110 New equipment 870
Electricity 320
Bar cost 3,020
Balance at bank 31/12/12 7,190
12,870 12,870
Additional information:
(i) Subscription in arrears GH¢
1/1/2012 450
31/12/2012 560
(ii) Subscription in advance
1/1/2012 370
31/12/2012 220
(iii) Cost of printing in arrears 110
(iv) Assets as at 1/1/2012:
Fixtures and fittings 8,700
Equipment 3,000
(v) Depreciation on fixed assets is to be provided at 15% per annum including the year of purchase.
You are required to prepare:
(a) accumulated fund as at 1/1/2012
(b) income and expenditure account for the year
(c) balance sheet as at 31/12/2012. (15 marks)
(5) The debit side of Yahoo Ltd’s trial balance exceeds the credit side. The net profit for the period was D4,210. Further investigation revealed the following errors:
(i) Closing stock was under cast by D420,000;
(ii) Cash in hand was recorded as D66,000 instead of D660,000;
(iii) An invoice of D980,000 has been correctly included in the stock and purchases but not post to the personal ledgers;
(iv) The bank balance has been under cast by D1,860,000;
(v) An entire page in the Sales journal totaling D 2,450,000 was omitted from the postings to the Sales account;
(vi) A private purchase of D 550,000 had been included in the business purchases;
(vii) Insurance premium paid was under cast by D750,000;
(viii) The total of the purchases journal was carried forward, and subsequently posted to the purchases account as D 2,355,000
(ix) Income tax of D 540, 000 on employees’ wages and salaries was owed to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) but no provision had been made for this in the books.
You are required to:
(a) Show the journal entries necessary to correct the errors,
(b ) Draw up a statement to show the adjusted net profit. (15 marks)
Sample Physics Questions
There will be three papers, Papers 1, 2 and 3, all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple choice questions lasting 1¼ hours and carrying 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of two sections, Sections A and B lasting1½ hours and carrying 60 marks.
Section A - Will comprise seven short-structured questions. Candidates will be required to answer any five questions for a total of 15 marks.
Section B - Will comprise five essay questions out of which candidates will be required to answer any three for 45 marks.
PAPER 3: Will be a practical test for school candidates or an alternative to practical work paper for private candidates. Each version of the paper will comprise three questions out of which candidates will be required to answer any two in 2¾ hours for 50 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. To rectify a current simply means to
A. increase the magnitude of the current.
B. measure the current using an ammeter.
C. convert the current from a.c to d.c.
D. connect more resistors in series in a circuit.
2. Which of the following statements is correct about laser light?
A. It converges at all times.
B. It diverges at all times.
C. It converges and diverges at different intervals.
D. It neither diverges nor converges.
3. X Y Z
0 0 0
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 1
The truth table above represents a two input X, Y and a Z output device(s). The device(s) is
A. AND gate.
B. NAND gate.
C. OR gate.
D. AND gate + inverter.
4. The dimensions of pressure is
A. ML-1T-2
B. ML T-2
C. ML3 T-2
D. ML-1T-
5. The recoil of a gun after it has been shot is a demonstration of
A. the principle of conservation of energy.
B. Newton’s second law of motion.
C. the principle of conservation of matter.
D. Newton’s third law of motion.
6 Two standard resistors of magnitudes 10 and 5 are connected in series to a series arrangement of secondary cells. If the current through the 10 resistor is 5A, the current through the 5 resistor is
A. 2.5 A
B. 5.0 A
C. 7.5 A
D. 10.0 A.
PAPER 2
SECTION A
(Short Structures)
1. (a) How does an active satellite differ from a passive satellite? (b) State one use of an active satellite. [3 marks ]
2. (a) Draw a two input Nand gate. (b) State its truth table. [3 marks ]
SECTION B
(Essay)
1. (a) Define a photoelectron. [ 2 marks ]
(b) The equation below represents a radioactive decay
(i) What are the values of x and p? [2 marks
(ii) State the conservation principles used in deriving the values of x and p. [2 marks ]
(c) (i) What is meant by the half life of a radioactive substance?
(ii) A radioactive substance has a half-life of 3.8 days.
Calculate its decay constant. [5 marks]
(d) State one function of each of the following materials utilized by an operating nuclear reactor:
(i) Boron rods,
(ii) U235,
(iii) Graphite moderators [3 marks]
Waec Economics Scheme
There will be two papers - Paper 1 and Paper 2; both of which will be combined in a 3 hour composite paper.
Paper 1: will consist of fifty multiple choice questions to be taken in 1 hour for 50 marks.
Paper 2: will consist of eight essay- type questions in two sections: Sections A and B. Section A shall be on data response. Candidates will be required to answer four questions in all, choosing one question from Section A and any three questions from Section B. The paper shall last 2 hours for 80 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
OBJECTIVE
1. One of the advantages of large scale production is that
A. there is a rise in the cost of administration.
B. consumers sacrifice their individual tastes.
C. the firm can use labour-saving machinery.
D. the demand for a firm’s products becomes localized.
2. The location of timber and plywood industries in West Africa is mainly influenced
by the availability of
A. transport.
B. water.
C. raw materials.
D. labour supply.
3. Malthus’ population theory states that
A. high death rate may lead to low productivity.
B. population may outgrow the means of subsistence.
C. people will always decide to have children.
D. migration may leave some parts of the world barren.
4. Which of the following is not likely to be an effect of a growing population?
A. Rise in demand
B. Unemployment
C. Fall in standard of living
D. High per capita income
5. Personal savings are generally low in West Africa because of
A. the level of income of the people.
B. the refusal of banks to grant loans.
C. overpopulation.
D. cheaper foreign currencies.
6. Devaluation of currency in a country is likely to lead to
A. increasing population.
B. increasing imports.
C. exports becoming cheaper.
D. reduced exports.
7. Which of the following is not a benefit derived from the petroleum industry?
A. Increased foreign exchange earnings
B. Establishment of refineries and petrochemical industries
C. Employment of a greater proportion of the population
D. Development of airports, seaports and other social infrastructure
8. An efficient weapon used in resolving disputes between employees is
A. co-operation.
B. collective bargaining.
C. display of placards.
D. legal action.
9. A country’s balance of payment is in deficit when
A. a country’s payments for imports of invisible goods are greater than her receipts from exports of invisible goods.
B. the total receipts from her export of visible and invisible goods are greater than her payments for visible and invisible imports.
C. it can record a surplus on current account of her balance of payments accounts.
D. the total payments for visible and invisible imports are greater than the total
receipts from her exports of visible and invisible goods.
10. Which of the following features best describes peasant agriculture in West Africa? It
A. specializes in the production of one crop.
B. involves the use of small farm holdings.
C. is a capital-intensive system of farming.
D. is mostly associated with tree crops
PAPER 2
(ESSAY)
1. The table below represents a traveller’s consumption of bottles of Coca-Cola.
Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:-
No. of Bottles
Total Utility
Marginal Utility
(a) Determine the missing figures D, E, F, G and H.
(b) Draw the demand curve for the traveller’s consumption of Coca-Coca.
(c) Explain the law of diminishing marginal utility as the basis for the slope of the traveller’s demand curve.
2. (a) Distinguish between economic activities and an economic system.
(b) Explain the following terms:
(i) production;
(ii) distribution;
(iii) consumption.
3. (a) With the aid of a diagram, explain a minimum price.
(b) State any five measures by which a minimum price for an agricultural produce can be made effective.
4. (a) Describe the output method of measuring the gross domestic product of a country.
(b) How is the net national product at factor cost obtained from gross domestic product?
(c) State two problems associated with the output method.
5. (a) Explain the function of money as a
(i) measure of value;
(ii) store of value.
(b) Show how inflation affects these two functions of money.
6. (a) What is a commercial bank?
(b) Describe any four ways by which the Central Bank controls the amount of
credit given by the commercial banks.
7. (a) Differentiate between human capital and physical capital.
(b) State three ways of improving on the stock of human capital in your
country.
Further Math Waec Sample Questions Scheme
There will be two papers, Papers 1 and 2, both of which must be taken.
PAPER 1: will consist of forty multiple-choice objective questions, covering the entire
syllabus. Candidates will be required to answer all questions in 1
hours for 40
marks. The questions will be drawn from the sections of the syllabus as follows:
Pure Mathematics - 30 questions
Statistics and probability - 4 questions
Vectors and Mechanics - 6 questions
PAPER 2: will consist of two sections, Sections A and B, to be answered in 2 hours for 100 marks.
Section A will consist of eight compulsory questions that are elementary in type for 48
marks. The questions shall be distributed as follows:
Pure Mathematics - 4 questions
Statistics and Probability - 2 questions
Vectors and Mechanics - 2 questions
Section B will consist of seven questions of greater length and difficulty put into three parts:
Parts I, II and III as follows:
Part I: Pure Mathematics - 3 questions
Part II: Statistics and Probability - 2 questions
Part III: Vectors and Mechanics - 2 questions
Candidates will be required to answer four questions with at least one from each part for 52 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVES)
1. Find the equation of the line joining points (8, 1) and (-3, 4).
A. 3x – 11y – 35 = 0
B. 3x – 11y + 35 = 0
C. 3x + 11y – 35 = 0
D. 3x + 11y + 35 = 0
2. The sum of the first and sixth terms of an Arithmetic progression (A.P.) is 21. If
the first term is 3, find the eighth term.
A. 24
B. 27
C. 30
D. 33
3. If and are the roots of the equation 2x2 – 5x + m = 0, where m is a constant,
find ( 2 + 2) in terms of m.
A. + 2m
B. + m
C. - 2m
D. – m
4. Given that y =cos2x, find
A. -sin2x
B. –cos x sin x
C. -2cosx sinx
D. -2sin2x
5. The position vectors of points P, Q and R are p = 4j, q = (4i + 10j) and r = (ki +
8j) respectively, where k is a constant. If ∠PQR = 90o, find the value of k.
A. 7
B. 1
C. -1
D. -7
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
SECTION A
1. Given that * is a binary operation defined on R, the set of real numbers by
x*y = x2/x+y
, where x, y R.
(a) evaluate (2 * 3) * 5.
(b) If (x + 1) * (x + 2) =
, find the value of x.
2. The marks scored by forty candidates in an examination are shown
in the table.
If the mean of the distribution is 4.725, find the values of m and n.
SECTION B
Part I (Pure Mathematics)
Part II (Statistics and Probability)
4. The deviations from 10 of a given set of numbers are 2, 1, 0, -4, -5,
- 1, - 2 and – 7. Find the:
(i) mean;
(ii) median;
(iii) standard deviation of the numbers.
WAEC Exam Scheme for Civic Education
There will be two papers, paper 1 and paper 2; both of which will be in a composite paper and will be taken at one sitting.
Paper 1: This will be a 1-hour multiple choice test consisting of fifty questions drawn from the entire syllabus and will carry 40 marks.
Paper 2: This paper will be a 2- hour essay type test consisting of three sections: Sections A, B, C. Each section shall contain three questions. Candidates will be required to answer four questions choosing at least one from each Section. The paper will carry 60 marks. The sections shall cover the following areas of the syllabus:
Section A: National ethics, discipline, rights and obligations
Section B: Emerging Issues in the society
Section C: Governmental system and processes
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. Which of the following is an acceptable societal value?
A. Honesty
B. Merriment
C. Praise singing
D. Family planning
2. Which of the following is an effective way of resolving inter-communal conflict?
A. Meditation
B. Dialogue
C. Litigation
D. Avoidance
3. When there is a dispute in a community, members should
A. be indifferent to the issue.
B. cooperate with others.
C. leave the community entirely.
D. be resolute to their cause.
4. Community development projects can best be achieved if the people are
A. cooperative.
B. religious.
C. optimistic.
D. knowledgeable
5. Which of the following is a major problem of the Nigerian Civil Service?
A. Neutrality
B. Red tapism
C. Impartiality
D. Anonymity
6. The civic obligation of a citizen includes
A. political socialization.
B. political participation.
C. engaging in family planning.
D. engaging in business ventures.
7. The following are goals of citizenship education except
A. preparing learners for leadership.
B. developing appropriate attitude in the learners.
C. creating job opportunities.
D. providing social amenities.
8. HIV/AIDS is spread mainly through
A. indiscriminate sexual intercourse.
B. kissing and hugging.
C. sharing toiletries with victims.
D. handshake with victims.
9. People living with HIV/AIDS could be assisted by
A. isolating them.
B. showing them love.
C. blaming them.
D. avoiding them.
10. Which of the following does not promote national consciousness?
A. Respect for the symbols and identities of the country
B. Promotion of people’s culture and tradition
C. Appropriate use of the mass media
D. Inappropriate use of state property
11. Modern countries adopt rule of law in order to make
A. lawyers independent.
B. the law supreme.
C. the judiciary part of legislature.
D. laws in parliament.
12. The habit of obeying traffic regulations helps the individual to
A. report late at work.
B. avoid unnecessary accident.
C. be lazy at work.
D. use unauthorized route.
13. Which of the following roles should a responsible parent perform?
A. Sending the children to hawk on the street
B. Instilling in children appropriate values and attitude
C. Encouraging early marriage
D. Showing favour to a particular child
14. A challenge facing the protection of human rights in Nigeria is
A. absence of public complaints commission.
B. failure of leaders to promote rule of law.
C. independence of the judiciary.
D. press freedom.
15. Election is a key pillar of democracy because it helps to
A. determine the legitimacy of government.
B. unite the country against external aggression.
C. create goodwill and unity among political parties.
D. identify the richest political party in Nigeria.
PAPER 2
(ESSAY)
1. (a) What is citizenship education?
(b) Identify four roles of citizenship education.
2. (a) What is inter-communal conflict?
(b) Highlight four ways of resolving inter-communal conflicts in Nigeria.
3. In what five ways can the legislature contribute to the development of democracy in
Nigeria?
4. (a) Define democracy.
(b) State four ways of promoting democracy in Nigeria.
5. (a) Explain the term Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
(b) State four reasons for the introduction of the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights (UDHR).
Waec Scheme for Agric Science
There will be three papers: Papers 1, 2 and 3 all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple choice questions to be answered within 50 minutes for 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of six essay questions with each drawn from at least two themes in the syllabus. Candidates will be required to answer five of the questions within 2 hours 10 minutes for 90 marks.
PAPER 3: Will be a practical paper for school candidates and alternative to practical paper for private candidates. It will consist of four questions, all of which should be answered within 1½ hours for 60 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Paper 1(Objective)
1. The device which helps to regulate heat in an incubator is the
A. thermometer.
B. hygrometer.
C. insulator.
D. thermostat.
2. Which of the following statements about crop production is not correct?
A. Onions are commonly grown in the rainforest zones.
B. Yam, cocoyam and cassava are grown in both the rainforest and the savanna regions.
C. Some foreign vegetable crops are grown in and around urban centres.
D. Carrots are commonly grown in the savanna and moist vegetation belts.
3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of surface irrigation?
A. The quantity of water lost is high.
B. Water is evenly distributed over the farmland
C. It is very cheap to operate.
D. The system is suitable for paddy rice cultivation.
4. Fine soil tilth is produced by the use of
A. harrow.
B. plough.
C. ridger.
D. mower.
5. The problems of farm mechanization in West Africa include the following except
A. reduction of farm drudgery.
B. small farm holdings.
C. poverty of farmers.
D. poor topography.
Paper 2 (Essay)
(1) (a) Explain each of the following terms as used in animal production:
(i) dipping;
(ii) dry cow;
(iii) culling;
(iv) quarantine. [8 marks]
(b) Describe the life cycle of roundworm (Ascaris lumbricoides). [4 marks]
(c) Explain the term farm mechanization. [2 marks]
(d) Name four tractor coupled implements [4 marks]
(2) (a) State six limitations of farm mechanization in West Africa. [6 marks]
(b) Suggest six ways of encouraging farm mechanization in West Africa.
[6 marks] (c) List four methods of identification in cattle management. [4 marks] (d) What is debeaking in poultry management? [2 marks]
(3) (a) Mention two processes that release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere[2 marks] (b) Name four storage pests of crops [4 marks] (c) State two functions of Potassium in crops. [2 marks]
(d) List three ways by which each of the following biotic factors
affects agricultural production:
(i) parasites; (ii) soil organisms. [6 marks]
(e) State four advantages of zero tillage. [4 marks]
PAPER 3
(PRACTICAL)
(Instruction)
Specimens
A – Granite
B – Limestone
C – Marble
1.(a) Identify specimens A, B and C. [3 marks]
(b) Classify specimens A, B and C according to their mode of formation. [3 marks]
(c) State three characteristics of each of specimens A, B and C. [9 marks]
2. (a) Differentiate between specimens A and B [ 6 marks ]
(b) State four ways in which specimen A is important [ 4 marks ]
(c) Describe the formation of specimen A [ 5 marks ]
Waec Scheme for Government
There will be two papers – Paper 1 and Paper 2, both of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be composite and wlii be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: This will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions drawn from the entire syllabus. Candidates will be required to answer all the questions in 1 hour for 40 marks.
PAPER 2: This will be a two-hour essay type test consisting of two sections, Sections A and B.
Section A: Elements of Government
Shall contain five questions out of which candidates shall be required to attempt any two.
Section B: Political and Constitutional Developments in West Africa and International Relations
Shall contain sets of five questions. Each set shall be on one member country. Each candidate is to answer two questions chosen from the set on the country in which he/she is taking the examination.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVE)
1. One merit of decentralization is that
A. decisions on local matters are made daily.
B. it is less expensive to operate.
C. decision-making at national level is enhanced.
D. at the local levels, decisions can be taken.
2. Political parties are formed in order to
A. make laws for the state.
B. educate citizens on political issues.
C. recruit labour union leaders.
D. appoint civil and public servants.
3. The educated elite opposed indirect rule in West Africa because
A. it distorted the institution of chieftaincy.
B. the British had shortage of personnel.
C. it was successful in order parts of the world.
D. the elite took part in the administration of the territories.
4. The institution that protects the rights and liberties of citizens of a state is the
A. legislature.
B. executive.
C. judiciary.
D. media.
5. Public opinion is not measured through
A. elections.
B. lobbying.
C. referendum.
D. opinion poll.
6. In the presidential system of government, a bill becomes a law only when it receives assent by the
A. President.
B. Prime Minister.
C. Chief Justice.
D. Chief of Staff.
PAPER 2
(ESSAY)
SECTION A
For all candidates
1. Outline three merits and three demerits of Separation of Powers.
2. Explain six functions performed by political parties in your country.
3. Describe six factors that can determine the effectiveness of pressure groups
4. Explain six duties expected to be performed by a citizen of a state.
5. (a) What is a state?
(b) Outline five reasons why individuals must belong to a state.
SECTION B
For candidates in Nigeria only
6. How did the people of British West African territories govern themselves before the advent of colonial rule.
7. What are the main criticisms levelled against the 1946 Richards Constitution of Nigeria.
8. Outline six benefits Nigeria derives from her membership of the United Nations Organization.
For candidates in Sierra Leone only
9. Describe the political organization of the Mende of Sierra Leone in the pre-colonial period.
10. State four changes introduced by the 1961 Independence Constitution of Sier
Waec Scheme for Mathematics
There will be two papers, Papers 1 and 2, both of which must be taken.
PAPER 1: will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions, drawn from the common areas of the syllabus, to be answered in 1½ hours for 50 marks.
PAPER 2: will consist of thirteen essay questions in two sections – Sections A and B, to be answered in 2½ hours for 100 marks. Candidates will be required to answer ten questions in all.
Section A - Will consist of five compulsory questions, elementary in nature carrying a total of 40 marks. The questions will be drawn from the common areas of the syllabus.
Section B - will consist of eight questions of greater length and difficulty. The questions shall include a maximum of two which shall be drawn from parts of the syllabuses which may not be peculiar to candidates’ home countries. Candidates will be expected to answer five questions for 60marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. If log10X = 0. 7549 and log10Y = 0.3285, find log10XY.
A. 0.4256
B. 0.2479
C. 1.0826
D. 2.2956
2. Convert 13.025 to base 10.
A. 8.08
B. 8.80
C. 808
D. 880
3. Simplify : 3x+1(2x-1) .
2-1 (6x)
A. 6
B. 3
C. 3x
D. 2x
4. A bonus issue of ordinary shares on the basis of three new shares for every five held has been made by a company. What will be the increase in the number of shares of an investor who originally had 75,000 ordinary shares?
A. 15,000
B. 25,000
C. 45,000
D. 75,000
5. Find the equation of the line which is perpendicular to y = and which passes through the point (1, 3).
A. y = -3x
B. y = 3x
C. y = -3x + 6
D. y = 3x – 6
6. Which of the following is represented by the shaded region of the Venn
diagram below?2016 Waec Scheme for Mathematics
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)[/size]
English Language WAEC Sample Questions
There will be three papers – Papers 1, 2 and 3, all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be combined in a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of eighty multiple choice questions, all of which should be answered within 1 hour for 40 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of five essay topics and a passage each to test candidates’ comprehension and summary skills. Candidates will be expected to write an essay on one of the topics and answer all the questions on Comprehension and Summary passages. The paper will last 2 hours and carry 100 marks.
PAPER 3: Will consist of sixty multiple choice items on Test of Orals for candidates in Nigeria and Liberia, and that on Listening Comprehension for candidates in Ghana, The Gambia and Sierra Leone. All the questions will be answered in 45 minutes for 30 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
SECTION 1
In each of the following sentences, there is one underlined word and one gap. From the list of words lettered A to D, choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the sentence.
1. Most African countries face poverty while few enjoy ……………………….
A. influence
B. money
C. affluence
D. power
2. Last year our farmers cultivated more crops than they……………………….
A. destroyed
B. uprooted
C. harvested
D. yielded
SECTION 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes each of the following sentences.
3. There would have been a riot in our school but for the timely……………..of our staff.
A. intervention
B. interruption
C. interference
D. invasion
4. The armed robbers ……………every room in the bank to look for money.
A. explored
B. ransacked
C. raked
D. swept
SECTION 3
After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations is given. Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence.
5. Ade is too clever by half. This means that Ade is
A. far cleverer than others.
B. actually very stupid in his behaviour.
C. annoyingly clever.
D. behaving to be clever but is not.
6. Ameh is really being economical with the truth. This means that Ameh
A. is being praised for being honest.
B. does not know enough.
C. knows more than he is prepared to say.
D. is not telling the truth.
SECTION 4
From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, chose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is used in the sentence.
7. By failing to attend the interview, Idoko has lost a golden opportunity.
A. blessed
B. bright
C. good
D. delightful
8. I hope the principal would be gracious enough to forgive us.
A. cordial
B. polite
C. merciful
D. gentle
SECTION 5
From the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes each of the following sentences.
9. A good citizen abides ...............the rules of the land.
A. with
B. in
C. at
D. by
10. Since his swearing in, the governor ................... .his hometown.
A. had not been visiting
B. has not visited
C. did not visit
D. had not visited
PAPER 2
SECTION A
(50 MARKS)
Answer one question only from this section. All questions carry equal marks. Your answer should not be less than 450 words.
You are advised to spend about 50 minutes on this section.
1. Your friend in another school has requested information about your school to enable him to decide on moving over to your school. Write a letter to him discussing at least three areas in which your school excels.
2. Write an article for publication in your school magazine, discussing the reasons why children in your area drop out of school and suggesting ways of minimizing it.
3. As the president of your youth club, write a letter to the chairman of your Local Government Association complaining about the increasing rate of child labour and suggesting ways of curbing it.
4. You are the chief speaker in a debate on the topic: Women should not be in paid employment while still bearing children. Write your contribution for or against the topic.
5. Write a story that ends with the words: That experience will linger on my mind for a long time.
SECTION B
COMPREHENSION
(20 marks)
Dele groaned and got out of bed. There was no clock on the mantel piece and the room was still dark, but he knew that he was already late for work, probably by an hour. He was a commercial bus driver and had to get started as early as 5.00a.m. and go almost non-stop till about 9.00 p.m. to be able to make the daily returns that the bus owner demanded.
On the previous day, he had attended an all-night party – a late uncle’s burial ceremony – where he had drunk himself almost senseless before crawling home in the early hours of the morning. Now, he got up shakily, splashed water on his face and hurried off to work, but not before carefully fastening on his upper left arm the amulet he had always worn for protection against accidents. A similar amulet hung concealed under the steering column of his bus. On his way, still feeling groggy, he caught his left toe against a stump and had some misgiving. It was a bad sign, and he was supposed to go back home and then set out again. But there was no time for that now, so he hurried on.
At the bus station, Dele quickly loaded his bus and sped off without any of the necessary checks on the vehicle. He had to make up for lost time. It was the rush hour, so the bus was overloaded as it often was, with many passengers hanging on to the doors. The tyres were threadbare, the brakes were faulty and the road was wet, but, still feeling a little sleepy, Dele sped on. Many passengers protested about his reckless driving, but he would not listen. After all, didn’t he have protection against accident?
As the vehicle took the last turn before its destination, Dele saw a broken-down truck blocking his side of the road. Under normal circumstances, he could have brought the bus safely to a halt, bur the circumstances were far from normal. The careering bus hit the parked vehicle, swerved wildly across the road and plunged into a ditch.
Dele’s surprise before he sank into oblivion was the failure of his supposedly protective amulets.
(a) Why did Dele wake up late?
(b) …he caught his left toe against a stump and had some misgivings. What does this tell us about Dele?
(c) Give two reasons why Dele drove recklessly.
(d) Why was Dele unable to stop his faulty vehicle?
(e) What was Dele’s condition after the accident?
(f) After all, didn’t he have protection against accident? What literary device is used in this expression?
(g) …wildly across the road…
(i) What grammatical name is given to the expression as it is used in the passage?
(ii) What is its function?
(h) For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and can replace it in the passage:
i. probably;
ii. returns;
iii. groggy;
iv. misgiving
v. threadbare
vi. reckless.
SECTION C
(SUMMARY)
[30 MARKS]
You are advised to spend about 50 minutes on this section.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.
You cannot expect to go through life without meeting problems. Difficulties, perplexities and frustrations are an inevitable part of human experience. Accepting this idea of the inevitability of problems will help you to approach them in a robust frame of mind rather than thinking that you are a victim specially singled out by malignant fate.
When confronted with a problem, the first thing to do is gather all relevant data to get acquainted with the facts of the case. Then write down exactly what the problem is, stating it simply in black and white. This gives you something definite with which to come to terms. The problem is assessed and you will now have something concrete to deal with.
Next, give serious thought to the problem, making sure that such thought does not degenerate into worry as worry accomplishes nothing. Aim at clear, dispassionate thought, viewing the problem as if it were a friend’s and not your own. Look at it from all angles and from the point of view of all concerned. You court disaster if you are entirely selfish in your outlook. The single important purpose of all this is to discover all possible solutions to the problem.
Having examined the problem broadly and impartially, carefully examine all the possible solutions or courses of action. The knowledge that you have done this will keep you from useless regrets later, when you can remind yourself that all courses of action were examined and you chose what appeared to be the best. Next, eliminate all proposed solutions which are seen on further thought to be impracticable.
You will now find that your list has been whittled down to two or three possibilities. At this stage it is often a good plan to get out into the open air. Go for a walk or a ride, preferably somewhere with wide horizons. There, out in the open, review the problem afresh. You will find it appears less formidable. Ask yourself how the difficulty will appear in ten years’ time or even one! This fresh review will enable you to make a final choice as you turn to the remaining solutions and, before you return home, decide which one you are going to adopt. As you go to sleep that night, let your last thoughts be upon your decision. If, in the morning, you still feel it is the best one to take, go ahead.
If you have a friend who is capable of giving sound advice, consult him. Do this before your final decision, so that you will have the benefit of his views before you decide. Talking things over with another is always a great help. It enables you to isolate the problem and to decide which on which factors are important. Even if the friend offers no advice, a sympathetic ear will help you. Furthermore, as you describe to your friend the courses open to you, you will see them in clearer light. Some will appear impossible even as you speak. Alternatively, one will appear most attractive.
In dealing with problems, remember the time factor. Although some problems solve themselves in time, and delaying tactics is therefore the best form of action for them, most other problems generally get more complicated the longer they are left. You should therefore get to grips with the problems immediately they occur.
All told, reasonable foresight and imagination can prevent many problems ever arising. Tact, thoughtfulness and responsible conduct can also keep life largely problem-free.
In six sentences, one for each, summarize the steps to be taken when faced with a problem and state why each step is necessary.
PAPER 3
(TEST 0F ORALS)
For candidates in Nigeria and Liberia only
SECTION 1
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letters underlined.
1. wit
A. fright
B. wheat
C. tree
D. market
2. look
A. glue
B. you
C. cup
D. curious
SECTION 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same consonant sound(s) as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.
3. dance
A. handsome
B. sandwich
C. adjective
D. pounding
4. plucked
A. smiled
B. slammed
C. luck
D. table
SECTION 3
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that rhymes with the given word.
5. carrier
A. area
B. barrier
C. serious
D. ravine
6. drought
A. crowd
B. nought
C. shout
D. taught
SECTION 4
In each of the following questions, the main/primary stress is indicated by writing the syllable on which it occurs in capital letters. From the words lettered A to D, choose the one that has the correct stress.
7. acrimony
A. A-cri-mo-ny
B. a-CRI-mo-ny
C. a-cri-MO-ny
D. a-cri-mo-NY
SECTION 5:
In the following options lettered A to D, all the words except one have the same stress pattern. Identify the one with the different stress pattern.
8. A. sanctify
B. promising
C. notify
D. organic
SECTION 6
In each of the following sentences, the word that receives the emphatic stress is written in capital letters. From the questions lettered A to D, choose the one to which the given sentence is the appropriate answer.
9. The DOCTOR examined the patient with a stethoscope.
A. Did the teacher examine the patient with a stethoscope?
B. Did the doctor cure the patient with a stethoscope?
C. Did the doctor examine the nurse with a stethoscope?
D. Did the doctor examine the patient with a telescope?
SECTION 7
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that contains the sound represented by the given phonetic symbol.
10. / ǝ /
A. accurate
B. nephew
C. ageless
D. waddle
Waec Literature in English Sample Questions
LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH EXAMINATION SCHEME
There will be three papers – Papers 1, 2 and 3. Papers 1 and 2 will be combined in a 1 hour 15 minutes composite paper and will be taken at one sitting
Paper 1 will be a multiple choice objective test. It will contain fifty questions distributed as follows:
(a) Twenty questions on General Knowledge of Literature;
(b) Five questions on an unseen prose passage;
(c) Five questions on an unseen poem;
(d) Twenty context questions on the prescribed Shakespearean text.
Candidates will be required to answer all the questions within 1 hour for 50 marks.
Paper 2 will be an essay test with two sections, Sections A and B. Section A will be on African Prose and Section B on Non African Prose.
Two essay questions will be set on each of the novels prescribed for study. Candidates shall be required to answer one question only from each section within 1 hour 15 minutes for 50 marks.
Paper 3 will be on the Drama and Poetry components of the syllabus. It will be put into four sections, Sections A, B. C and D as follows:
Section A: African Drama
Section B: Non-African Drama
Section C: African Poetry
Section D: Non-African Poetry
There shall be two questions on each of the prescribed texts for each section.
Candidates shall be required to answer one question from each of the sections, making a total of four questions. The paper will take 2 hours 30 minutes to complete and will carry 50 marks.
Note:
(i) The Unseen Prose passage for Paper 1 shall be about 120 – 150 words long.
(ii) Only context questions shall be set on the Shakespearean text. The context questions will test such items as theme, characterization, style and setting in the Shakespearean text.
(iii) No essay question shall be set on the Shakespearean text.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
[General Knowledge on Literature]
1. ____________ is sung to put a child to sleep.
A. A ballad
B. A lullaby
C. A dirge
D. A pastoral
2. In drama the purposeful use of gestures and actions is
A. soliloquy.
B. mime.
C. eulogy.
D. aside.
3. Imagery in a literary work
A. creates suspense.
B. accentuates humour.
C. heightens the dramatic atmosphere.
D. appeals to the senses.
4. All the world’s a stage, is an example of
A. metaphor.
B. paradox.
C. allusion.
D. personification.
5. _________ is the time and place in which the action of a narrative takes place.
A. Denouement
B. Mood
C. Setting
D. Plot
6. A tale in which the characters are often animals is
A. a fable.
B. an epic.
C. a ballad.
D. an ode.
7. Love indeed is anything,
Yet indeed is nothing
illustrates the use of
A. apostrophe.
B. antithesis.
C. oxymoron.
D. parody.
8. A reader’s curiosity is sustained through
A. suspense.
B. conflict.
C. flashback.
D. climax.
9. A hilarious and absurd play can be referred to as
A. a farce.
B. a pantomime.
C. an ode.
D. a comedy.
.
10. It is a bitter sweet experience is an example of
A. metonymy.
B. pun.
C. onomatopoeia.
D. oxymoron.
PAPER 2
SECTION A
AFRICAN PROSE
ASARE KONADU: A Woman in her Prime
1. Discuss the relationship between Pokuwaa and Koramoa.
ADICHIE CHIMAMANDA NGOZI: Purple Hibiscus
2. Comment on the significance of the Palm Sunday clash.
SECTION B
NON-AFRICAN PROSE
WILLIAM GOLDING: Lord of the Flies
3. Discuss three symbols used in the novel.
ERNEST HEMINGWAY: The Old Man and the Sea
4. What are the consequences of Santiago’s pride in the novel?
PAPER 3
(DRAMA & POETRY)
SECTION A
AFRICAN DRAMA
KOBINA SEKYI: The Blinkards
1. To what extend is Mrs.Borofosem a blind imitator of the English ways of life?
FEMI OSOFISAN: Women of Owu
2. Discuss the plight of women in the play.
SECTION B
NON- AFRICAN DRAMA
BERNARD SHAW: Arms and the Man
3. Comment on the relationship between the Petkoffs and their servants.
OSCAR WILDE: The Importance of Being Earnest
4. Analyse the deceptive nature of Algernon.
SECTION C
AFRICAN POETRY
5. Discuss the poet’s diction in the “The Fence”.
SECTION D
NON-AFRICAN POETRY
6. Examine the theme of loneliness in “Daffodils”.
CRK CRS Scheme Waec Sample Questions
There will be two papers, Papers 1and 2, both of which will be a composite paper to be taken
at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple choice objective questions all of which must be
answered within 1 hour for 40 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of nine essay-type questions. Candidates will be required to
answer four questions within 2 hours for 60 marks.
The questions will be arranged in sections as follows:
Section A: Themes from the Old Testament - four questions.
Section B: Themes from the Synoptic Gospels - three questions.
Section C: Themes from the Acts of the Apostles, James and I Peter
- two questions.
Candidates will be required to answer four questions in all, choosing at least one
question from each section and the fourth question from either Section A or
Section B.
The Revised Standard Version of the Bible will be used in setting of questions.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. According to Hosea, Israel’s relationship with God is that of
A. a faithful wife with a faithless husband.
B. the love between a woman and her husband.
C. a faithless wife and a loving husband.
D. a repentant wife and her forgiving husband.
2. King Josiah was regarded as a defender of Jewish religion because he
A. killed all the priests of Baal.
B. converted all the worshippers of Baal.
C. built a new temple in Jerusalem.
D. reformed the corrupt religion of Israel.
3. When David was informed that the child born to him by Bethsheba had died, he
A. sought Nathan’s counsel on what to do.
B. anointed himself and worshipped the lord.
C. wept throughout the day.
D. tore his robe and went to his house.
4. Which of the following tribes accompanied Deborah and Barak to the war against
Jabin and Sisera?
A. Ephraim and Dan
B. Naphtali and Zebulun
C. Issachar and Reuben
D. Ephraim and Benjamin
5. The place where Moses experienced that the burning bush was not consumed was
A. Meriba.
B. Horeb.
C. Bethel.
D. Nebo.
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
SECTION A
[Themes from the Old Testament]
1. (a) How did\Solomon first apply his wisdom?
(b) In what three ways can God’s wisdom be applied?
2. (a) Narrate the events leading to Gehazi’s acquisition of leprosy.
(b) State two lessons that can be derived from the story.
SECTION B
[Themes from the Synoptic Gospels]
3. (a) Highlight the events that took place when Jesus was brought
before Caiaphas, the High Priest.
(b) State three consequences of bearing false witness.
SECTION C
[Themes from the Acts of the Apostles, James and I Peter]
4. (a) Outline the teaching of James on partiality.
(b) Give three reasons why Christians should avoid partiality.
2016 Waec Sample Questions for Integrated Science
There will be three papers, Papers 1, 2 and 3 all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be a
composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions all of which must be
answered within 1 hour for 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of six essay-type questions. Candidates will be required to answer four
questions within 1 hour 30 minutes for 20 marks each.
PAPER 3: Will consist of four questions on test of practical work. Candidates will be required
to answer all the questions within 2 hours for 60 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVE TEST)
1. The pH of water is
A. 2.
B. 5.
C. 7.
D. 14.
2. One characteristic feature of Kingdom Animalia is the possession of
A. celluse cell wall.
B. nervous system.
C. starch granules.
D. chlorophyll.
3. Which of the following statements explains the occurrence of large number of carbon
compounds? Carbon
A. is present in all living things
B. atom is tetravalent element
C. compounds dissolve readily in organic solvents
D. compounds burn readily in air
4. The instrument used to measure diameter of a thin wire is
A. thread and rule.
B. engineer’s callipers.
C. micrometer screw gauge.
D. spherometer.
5. A species X has 16 protons, 17 neutrons and 18 electrons. X must be
A. neutral atom equal of a metal.
B. a cation of two positive charges.
C. an anion of two negative charges.
D. an anion of one negative charge.
6. The main effect of diseases on crops is
A. reduction in photosynthesis.
B. inhability of roots to absorb water.
C. shortening of internodes.
D. reduction in the yield of produce.
7. A car fuse is marked 15A and operates on a 12 volt battery. Determine the resistance of
the fuse wire.
A. 0.8 ohms
B. 1.3 ohms
C. 3.00 ohms
D. 27.00 ohms
8. Rabbits are housed in a
A. pen.
B. hutch.
C. kraal.
D. sty.
9. Which of the following parts of a mammalian skin protects the tissues beneath from
mechanical injury?
A. Dermis
B. Cornified layer
C. Granular layer
D. Malphigian layer
10. An element which can be considered as a semi-metal is
A. argon.
B. carbon.
C. silicon.
D. sodium.
11. Respiration is essential to life since
A. food is oxidised.
B. oxygen is used up.
C. waste products are eliminated.
D. energy is released.
12. Which of the following statements about the importance of mulching are correct?
I. Prevention of the surface of soil from caking
II. Conservation of moisture
III. Washing away of dissolved nutrients
IV. Keeping the soil cool
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
13. A pulley system is used to lift a load of 300N. If the effort applied is 150N, determine the
mechanical advantage of the system.
A. 0.5
B. 2.0
C. 150
D. 450
14. The easiest method of fertilizer application is
A. band application.
B. broadcasting.
C. ring application.
D. spraying.
15. Which of the following characteristic features are associated with insect-pollinated
flower?
I. Brightly coloured petals
II. Large petals
III. **** guider
IV. Pendulous stamen
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
1. (a) (i) What is a transistor?
(ii) Explain how a transistor behaves as a switch.
[5 marks]
(b) (i) Explain the term poultry.
(ii) State four reasons for keeping poultry.
[6 marks]
(c) Explain the following terms:
(i) population;
(ii) species.
[5 marks]
(d) (i) What are x-rays?
(ii) State two dangers associated with over exposure to x-rays.
[4marks]
2. (a) (i) What is plant tissue culture?
(ii) State three advantages of propagating a plant by tissue culture.
[5 marks]
(b) (i) Explain the term parturition as applied to animal production.
(ii) State three signs shown by an animal when parturition is about to occur.
[5 marks]
(c) Draw and label a ray diagram to show how the image of a point object is seen in a
plane mirror. [5 marks]
(d) A piece of zinc metal was placed in a beaker containing dilute hydrochloric acid.
(i) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction that took place.
(ii) If 10.4g of zinc was placed in the hydrochloric acid, determine the
amount, in moles of hydrochloric acid, that would be required to react with the
zinc completely.
[Zn = 65.4, H = 1, Cl = 35.5]
[5 marks]
3. (a) Explain the following terms as applied to sound waves:
(i) frequency;
(ii) loudness;
(iii) pitch.
[6 marks]
(b) (i) What is crop rotation?
(ii) State two advantages of crop rotation.
[4 marks]
(c) (i) List three kingdoms used in the classification
of living things.
(ii) State two reasons for classification of living things.
[5 marks]
(d) (i) Explain briefly how each of the following processes occurs:
(i) melting of a solid;
(ii) condensation of a gas.
[5 marks]
PAPER 3 (TEST OF PRACTICAL WORK)
1. A stock solution of 1M HCl was prepared by dissolving 3.65 g of HCl in 100 cm3 of
distilled water. 5 cm3 of the stock solution was put into each of the five measuring
cylinders labelled V1, V2 V3, V4, and V5 and diluted with different amounts of distilled
water to the volumes shown in the diagram below.
(a) (i) Read and record the volumes of the solution in each of the measuring
cylinders labelled V1, V2 V3, V4, andV5 respectively.
(ii) Determine the volume of water used to dilute 1M HCl in each of the
measuring cylinders. [ 8 marks]
(b) Calculate the concentration of solution in measuring cylinder V4 in
(i) mol dm-3
(ii) g dm-3
[6 marks]
2. The Figures F and G below illustrate organisms associated with farm animals.
Study the figures carefully and answer the questions that follow
(a) Identify organisms F and G. [ 2 marks]
(b) Which group of parasites do organisms F and G belong to?
[2 marks]
(c) State two symptoms each of the infestation of organisms F and G on the
animals they inhabit.
[4 marks]
(d) Briefly explain two common methods each of controlling organisms F and
G. [8 marks]
Waec Scheme: Biology Sample Questions
There will be three papers: Papers 1, 2 and 3, all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be
a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions drawn from
Section A of the syllabus (the section of the syllabus which is common to
all countries). It will carry 50 marks and last for 50 minutes.
PAPER 2: Will consist of six essay questions drawn from the entire syllabus. The
paper will be put into three sections, Sections A, B and C.
Section A: Will consist of four questions drawn from Section A of the syllabus.
Section B: Will be for candidates in Ghana only and will be drawn from Section
B of the syllabus (ie the section of the syllabus perculiar to Ghana). It
will consist of short-structured questions.
Section C: Will be for candidates in Nigeria, Sierra Leone, The Gambia and
Liberia and will be drawn from Section C of the syllabus (ie the section
of the syllabus containing material for those countries only). It will also
consist of short-structured questions.
Candidates will be expected to answer two questions from Section A and all the
short-structured questions from either Section B or Section C.
Each question in Section A will carry 20 marks while the compulsory short-
structured questions in Sections B and C will carry 30 marks. The total score will
be 70 marks. The paper shall take 1 hour 40 minutes.
PAPER 3: Will be a practical test (for school candidates) or a test of practical work
(for private candidates) lasting 2 hours and consisting of three sections:
Sections A, B and C.
Section A: This will consist of two compulsory questions drawn from Section A
of the syllabus, each carrying 25 marks.
Section B: This will be for candidates in Ghana only. It will consist of one
question drawn from Section B of the syllabus and will carry 30 marks.
Section C: This will be for candidates in Nigeria, Sierra Leone, The Gambia and
Liberia. It will consist of one question drawn from Section C of the
syllabus and will carry 30 marks.
Candidates will be expected to answer all the questions in Section A and one
question in either Section B or C. The paper will carry a total score of 80 marks.
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVES)
1. The organelle in eukaryotic cells which is involved in the intracellular digestion of food is
A. Golgi body.
B. lysosome.
C. mitochondrion.
D. ribosome.
2. Which of the following structures is common to Amoeba, Paramecium and Euglena?
A. Anal pore
B. Contractile vacuole
C. Flagellum
D. Oral groove
3. The tertiary consumer within the web is
A. grasshopper.
B. rabbit.
C. man.
D. lion.
4. A company was prohibited from producing bags made from leopard skin as a measure of
conserving
A. water.
B. forest.
C. wildlife.
D. land.
5. An allele constantly expressed in the appearance of an organism is said to be
A. recessive.
B. dominant.
C. hybrid.
D. sex linked.
6. A woman with blood group A is married to a man with blood group B. Both have an offspring
who could donate blood to both parents. The genotype of both parents must be
PAPER 2 (ESSAY) [30 MARKS]
1. a) Name two types of aquatic habitats. [2 marks]
For each habitat you named in (a) above, state
i. two plants;
ii. two animals, found in the habitat. [8 marks]
b) Explain briefly the following terms:
i. Allele;
ii. Phenotype. [4 marks]
c) State the feeding habit of the following organisms and two modifications each
that help them adapt to it.
i. Mosquito larva;
ii. Tapeworm. [8 marks]
d) Explain how sewage causes water pollution [6 marks]
e) List two processes that release carbon to the environment [2 marks]
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
1 a) i. Identify the specimens labelled A to E [5 marks]
ii. State the role of each specimen you have identified. [5 marks]
iii. Mention the advantages they have derived from living together as a group. [2 marks]
b) Observe specimens F and G carefully and use them to answer the
questions that follow.
i. Classify specimens F and G under the headings phylum and class. [4 marks]
ii. Make a labelled drawing 8-10 cm long of the lateral view of specimen G. [11 marks]
iii. State three adaptations of specimen G to its environment. [3 marks]
Sample Questions for Financial Accounting
There will be two papers – Paper 1 and Paper 2, both of which will constitute a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will comprise fifty multiple choice questions to be taken in 1 hour for 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will be made up of two sections: Sections A and B and will last 2½ hours.
Section A: Will contain five essay questions on theory of financial accounting. Candidates will be required to answer two out of the four questions for 15 marks each.
Section B: Will contain five essay questions on financial accounting practice. Candidates will be required to answer three out of the questions for 15 marks each.
SAMPLE QUESTION
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVE)
1. The double entry for a cheque returned by a bank to a customer marked “refer to drawer” is debit
A. bank, credit debtor.
B. bank, credit bad debt expenses.
C. bad debt expenses, credit bank.
D. debtor, credit bank.
2. Which of the following is a characteristic of joint venture?
A. The activities are of short term duration.
B. Individual maintains separate account.
C. There is perpetual succession.
D. There is limitation to membership.
3. The person who retains ownership of goods on consignment is
A. commission agent.
B. del-credere agent.
C. consignor.
D. consignee.
4. The computer program instructions are read into the
A. output unit.
B. input unit
C. storage unit.
D. central processing unit.
5. In Contract Accounts, retention money refers to the
A. amount due to the contractor but held back by the customer.
B. progressive payments made by the customer to the contractor.
C. contractor’s profit on the contract.
D. amount overpaid by the customer to the contractors.
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
SECTION A
THEORY OF FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
1. (a) Distinguish between reserves and provisions. (6 marks)
(b) Explain the following giving one example in each case:
(i) Depreciation;
(ii) Depletion;
(iii) Amortization. (9 marks)
2. (a) What is value added tax?
(b) Distinguish between input vat and output vat.
(c) State four features of Value Added Tax. (15 marks)
3. Explain the following terms as they are used in contract accounts:
(a) Notional profit;
(b) Retention money;
(c) Progress payments;
(d) Work certified;
(e) Work-in-progress. (15marks)
SECTION B
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING PRACTICE.
4. The following information is extracted from the book of Love Club as at December 2012:
Receipts and Payments account
GH¢ GH¢
Cash at bank 1/1/1012 2,120 Expense on dance 940
Subscription received 5,910 Repairs 220
Sale of dance tickets 730 Printing and stationery 310
Bar takings 4,110 New equipment 870
Electricity 320
Bar cost 3,020
Balance at bank 31/12/12 7,190
12,870 12,870
Additional information:
(i) Subscription in arrears GH¢
1/1/2012 450
31/12/2012 560
(ii) Subscription in advance
1/1/2012 370
31/12/2012 220
(iii) Cost of printing in arrears 110
(iv) Assets as at 1/1/2012:
Fixtures and fittings 8,700
Equipment 3,000
(v) Depreciation on fixed assets is to be provided at 15% per annum including the year of purchase.
You are required to prepare:
(a) accumulated fund as at 1/1/2012
(b) income and expenditure account for the year
(c) balance sheet as at 31/12/2012. (15 marks)
(5) The debit side of Yahoo Ltd’s trial balance exceeds the credit side. The net profit for the period was D4,210. Further investigation revealed the following errors:
(i) Closing stock was under cast by D420,000;
(ii) Cash in hand was recorded as D66,000 instead of D660,000;
(iii) An invoice of D980,000 has been correctly included in the stock and purchases but not post to the personal ledgers;
(iv) The bank balance has been under cast by D1,860,000;
(v) An entire page in the Sales journal totaling D 2,450,000 was omitted from the postings to the Sales account;
(vi) A private purchase of D 550,000 had been included in the business purchases;
(vii) Insurance premium paid was under cast by D750,000;
(viii) The total of the purchases journal was carried forward, and subsequently posted to the purchases account as D 2,355,000
(ix) Income tax of D 540, 000 on employees’ wages and salaries was owed to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) but no provision had been made for this in the books.
You are required to:
(a) Show the journal entries necessary to correct the errors,
(b ) Draw up a statement to show the adjusted net profit. (15 marks)
Sample Physics Questions
There will be three papers, Papers 1, 2 and 3, all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple choice questions lasting 1¼ hours and carrying 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of two sections, Sections A and B lasting1½ hours and carrying 60 marks.
Section A - Will comprise seven short-structured questions. Candidates will be required to answer any five questions for a total of 15 marks.
Section B - Will comprise five essay questions out of which candidates will be required to answer any three for 45 marks.
PAPER 3: Will be a practical test for school candidates or an alternative to practical work paper for private candidates. Each version of the paper will comprise three questions out of which candidates will be required to answer any two in 2¾ hours for 50 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. To rectify a current simply means to
A. increase the magnitude of the current.
B. measure the current using an ammeter.
C. convert the current from a.c to d.c.
D. connect more resistors in series in a circuit.
2. Which of the following statements is correct about laser light?
A. It converges at all times.
B. It diverges at all times.
C. It converges and diverges at different intervals.
D. It neither diverges nor converges.
3. X Y Z
0 0 0
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 1
The truth table above represents a two input X, Y and a Z output device(s). The device(s) is
A. AND gate.
B. NAND gate.
C. OR gate.
D. AND gate + inverter.
4. The dimensions of pressure is
A. ML-1T-2
B. ML T-2
C. ML3 T-2
D. ML-1T-
5. The recoil of a gun after it has been shot is a demonstration of
A. the principle of conservation of energy.
B. Newton’s second law of motion.
C. the principle of conservation of matter.
D. Newton’s third law of motion.
6 Two standard resistors of magnitudes 10 and 5 are connected in series to a series arrangement of secondary cells. If the current through the 10 resistor is 5A, the current through the 5 resistor is
A. 2.5 A
B. 5.0 A
C. 7.5 A
D. 10.0 A.
PAPER 2
SECTION A
(Short Structures)
1. (a) How does an active satellite differ from a passive satellite? (b) State one use of an active satellite. [3 marks ]
2. (a) Draw a two input Nand gate. (b) State its truth table. [3 marks ]
SECTION B
(Essay)
1. (a) Define a photoelectron. [ 2 marks ]
(b) The equation below represents a radioactive decay
(i) What are the values of x and p? [2 marks
(ii) State the conservation principles used in deriving the values of x and p. [2 marks ]
(c) (i) What is meant by the half life of a radioactive substance?
(ii) A radioactive substance has a half-life of 3.8 days.
Calculate its decay constant. [5 marks]
(d) State one function of each of the following materials utilized by an operating nuclear reactor:
(i) Boron rods,
(ii) U235,
(iii) Graphite moderators [3 marks]
Waec Economics Scheme
There will be two papers - Paper 1 and Paper 2; both of which will be combined in a 3 hour composite paper.
Paper 1: will consist of fifty multiple choice questions to be taken in 1 hour for 50 marks.
Paper 2: will consist of eight essay- type questions in two sections: Sections A and B. Section A shall be on data response. Candidates will be required to answer four questions in all, choosing one question from Section A and any three questions from Section B. The paper shall last 2 hours for 80 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
OBJECTIVE
1. One of the advantages of large scale production is that
A. there is a rise in the cost of administration.
B. consumers sacrifice their individual tastes.
C. the firm can use labour-saving machinery.
D. the demand for a firm’s products becomes localized.
2. The location of timber and plywood industries in West Africa is mainly influenced
by the availability of
A. transport.
B. water.
C. raw materials.
D. labour supply.
3. Malthus’ population theory states that
A. high death rate may lead to low productivity.
B. population may outgrow the means of subsistence.
C. people will always decide to have children.
D. migration may leave some parts of the world barren.
4. Which of the following is not likely to be an effect of a growing population?
A. Rise in demand
B. Unemployment
C. Fall in standard of living
D. High per capita income
5. Personal savings are generally low in West Africa because of
A. the level of income of the people.
B. the refusal of banks to grant loans.
C. overpopulation.
D. cheaper foreign currencies.
6. Devaluation of currency in a country is likely to lead to
A. increasing population.
B. increasing imports.
C. exports becoming cheaper.
D. reduced exports.
7. Which of the following is not a benefit derived from the petroleum industry?
A. Increased foreign exchange earnings
B. Establishment of refineries and petrochemical industries
C. Employment of a greater proportion of the population
D. Development of airports, seaports and other social infrastructure
8. An efficient weapon used in resolving disputes between employees is
A. co-operation.
B. collective bargaining.
C. display of placards.
D. legal action.
9. A country’s balance of payment is in deficit when
A. a country’s payments for imports of invisible goods are greater than her receipts from exports of invisible goods.
B. the total receipts from her export of visible and invisible goods are greater than her payments for visible and invisible imports.
C. it can record a surplus on current account of her balance of payments accounts.
D. the total payments for visible and invisible imports are greater than the total
receipts from her exports of visible and invisible goods.
10. Which of the following features best describes peasant agriculture in West Africa? It
A. specializes in the production of one crop.
B. involves the use of small farm holdings.
C. is a capital-intensive system of farming.
D. is mostly associated with tree crops
PAPER 2
(ESSAY)
1. The table below represents a traveller’s consumption of bottles of Coca-Cola.
Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:-
No. of Bottles
Total Utility
Marginal Utility
(a) Determine the missing figures D, E, F, G and H.
(b) Draw the demand curve for the traveller’s consumption of Coca-Coca.
(c) Explain the law of diminishing marginal utility as the basis for the slope of the traveller’s demand curve.
2. (a) Distinguish between economic activities and an economic system.
(b) Explain the following terms:
(i) production;
(ii) distribution;
(iii) consumption.
3. (a) With the aid of a diagram, explain a minimum price.
(b) State any five measures by which a minimum price for an agricultural produce can be made effective.
4. (a) Describe the output method of measuring the gross domestic product of a country.
(b) How is the net national product at factor cost obtained from gross domestic product?
(c) State two problems associated with the output method.
5. (a) Explain the function of money as a
(i) measure of value;
(ii) store of value.
(b) Show how inflation affects these two functions of money.
6. (a) What is a commercial bank?
(b) Describe any four ways by which the Central Bank controls the amount of
credit given by the commercial banks.
7. (a) Differentiate between human capital and physical capital.
(b) State three ways of improving on the stock of human capital in your
country.
Further Math Waec Sample Questions Scheme
There will be two papers, Papers 1 and 2, both of which must be taken.
PAPER 1: will consist of forty multiple-choice objective questions, covering the entire
syllabus. Candidates will be required to answer all questions in 1
hours for 40
marks. The questions will be drawn from the sections of the syllabus as follows:
Pure Mathematics - 30 questions
Statistics and probability - 4 questions
Vectors and Mechanics - 6 questions
PAPER 2: will consist of two sections, Sections A and B, to be answered in 2 hours for 100 marks.
Section A will consist of eight compulsory questions that are elementary in type for 48
marks. The questions shall be distributed as follows:
Pure Mathematics - 4 questions
Statistics and Probability - 2 questions
Vectors and Mechanics - 2 questions
Section B will consist of seven questions of greater length and difficulty put into three parts:
Parts I, II and III as follows:
Part I: Pure Mathematics - 3 questions
Part II: Statistics and Probability - 2 questions
Part III: Vectors and Mechanics - 2 questions
Candidates will be required to answer four questions with at least one from each part for 52 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVES)
1. Find the equation of the line joining points (8, 1) and (-3, 4).
A. 3x – 11y – 35 = 0
B. 3x – 11y + 35 = 0
C. 3x + 11y – 35 = 0
D. 3x + 11y + 35 = 0
2. The sum of the first and sixth terms of an Arithmetic progression (A.P.) is 21. If
the first term is 3, find the eighth term.
A. 24
B. 27
C. 30
D. 33
3. If and are the roots of the equation 2x2 – 5x + m = 0, where m is a constant,
find ( 2 + 2) in terms of m.
A. + 2m
B. + m
C. - 2m
D. – m
4. Given that y =cos2x, find
A. -sin2x
B. –cos x sin x
C. -2cosx sinx
D. -2sin2x
5. The position vectors of points P, Q and R are p = 4j, q = (4i + 10j) and r = (ki +
8j) respectively, where k is a constant. If ∠PQR = 90o, find the value of k.
A. 7
B. 1
C. -1
D. -7
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
SECTION A
1. Given that * is a binary operation defined on R, the set of real numbers by
x*y = x2/x+y
, where x, y R.
(a) evaluate (2 * 3) * 5.
(b) If (x + 1) * (x + 2) =
, find the value of x.
2. The marks scored by forty candidates in an examination are shown
in the table.
If the mean of the distribution is 4.725, find the values of m and n.
SECTION B
Part I (Pure Mathematics)
Part II (Statistics and Probability)
4. The deviations from 10 of a given set of numbers are 2, 1, 0, -4, -5,
- 1, - 2 and – 7. Find the:
(i) mean;
(ii) median;
(iii) standard deviation of the numbers.
WAEC Exam Scheme for Civic Education
There will be two papers, paper 1 and paper 2; both of which will be in a composite paper and will be taken at one sitting.
Paper 1: This will be a 1-hour multiple choice test consisting of fifty questions drawn from the entire syllabus and will carry 40 marks.
Paper 2: This paper will be a 2- hour essay type test consisting of three sections: Sections A, B, C. Each section shall contain three questions. Candidates will be required to answer four questions choosing at least one from each Section. The paper will carry 60 marks. The sections shall cover the following areas of the syllabus:
Section A: National ethics, discipline, rights and obligations
Section B: Emerging Issues in the society
Section C: Governmental system and processes
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. Which of the following is an acceptable societal value?
A. Honesty
B. Merriment
C. Praise singing
D. Family planning
2. Which of the following is an effective way of resolving inter-communal conflict?
A. Meditation
B. Dialogue
C. Litigation
D. Avoidance
3. When there is a dispute in a community, members should
A. be indifferent to the issue.
B. cooperate with others.
C. leave the community entirely.
D. be resolute to their cause.
4. Community development projects can best be achieved if the people are
A. cooperative.
B. religious.
C. optimistic.
D. knowledgeable
5. Which of the following is a major problem of the Nigerian Civil Service?
A. Neutrality
B. Red tapism
C. Impartiality
D. Anonymity
6. The civic obligation of a citizen includes
A. political socialization.
B. political participation.
C. engaging in family planning.
D. engaging in business ventures.
7. The following are goals of citizenship education except
A. preparing learners for leadership.
B. developing appropriate attitude in the learners.
C. creating job opportunities.
D. providing social amenities.
8. HIV/AIDS is spread mainly through
A. indiscriminate sexual intercourse.
B. kissing and hugging.
C. sharing toiletries with victims.
D. handshake with victims.
9. People living with HIV/AIDS could be assisted by
A. isolating them.
B. showing them love.
C. blaming them.
D. avoiding them.
10. Which of the following does not promote national consciousness?
A. Respect for the symbols and identities of the country
B. Promotion of people’s culture and tradition
C. Appropriate use of the mass media
D. Inappropriate use of state property
11. Modern countries adopt rule of law in order to make
A. lawyers independent.
B. the law supreme.
C. the judiciary part of legislature.
D. laws in parliament.
12. The habit of obeying traffic regulations helps the individual to
A. report late at work.
B. avoid unnecessary accident.
C. be lazy at work.
D. use unauthorized route.
13. Which of the following roles should a responsible parent perform?
A. Sending the children to hawk on the street
B. Instilling in children appropriate values and attitude
C. Encouraging early marriage
D. Showing favour to a particular child
14. A challenge facing the protection of human rights in Nigeria is
A. absence of public complaints commission.
B. failure of leaders to promote rule of law.
C. independence of the judiciary.
D. press freedom.
15. Election is a key pillar of democracy because it helps to
A. determine the legitimacy of government.
B. unite the country against external aggression.
C. create goodwill and unity among political parties.
D. identify the richest political party in Nigeria.
PAPER 2
(ESSAY)
1. (a) What is citizenship education?
(b) Identify four roles of citizenship education.
2. (a) What is inter-communal conflict?
(b) Highlight four ways of resolving inter-communal conflicts in Nigeria.
3. In what five ways can the legislature contribute to the development of democracy in
Nigeria?
4. (a) Define democracy.
(b) State four ways of promoting democracy in Nigeria.
5. (a) Explain the term Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
(b) State four reasons for the introduction of the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights (UDHR).
Waec Scheme for Agric Science
There will be three papers: Papers 1, 2 and 3 all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple choice questions to be answered within 50 minutes for 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of six essay questions with each drawn from at least two themes in the syllabus. Candidates will be required to answer five of the questions within 2 hours 10 minutes for 90 marks.
PAPER 3: Will be a practical paper for school candidates and alternative to practical paper for private candidates. It will consist of four questions, all of which should be answered within 1½ hours for 60 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Paper 1(Objective)
1. The device which helps to regulate heat in an incubator is the
A. thermometer.
B. hygrometer.
C. insulator.
D. thermostat.
2. Which of the following statements about crop production is not correct?
A. Onions are commonly grown in the rainforest zones.
B. Yam, cocoyam and cassava are grown in both the rainforest and the savanna regions.
C. Some foreign vegetable crops are grown in and around urban centres.
D. Carrots are commonly grown in the savanna and moist vegetation belts.
3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of surface irrigation?
A. The quantity of water lost is high.
B. Water is evenly distributed over the farmland
C. It is very cheap to operate.
D. The system is suitable for paddy rice cultivation.
4. Fine soil tilth is produced by the use of
A. harrow.
B. plough.
C. ridger.
D. mower.
5. The problems of farm mechanization in West Africa include the following except
A. reduction of farm drudgery.
B. small farm holdings.
C. poverty of farmers.
D. poor topography.
Paper 2 (Essay)
(1) (a) Explain each of the following terms as used in animal production:
(i) dipping;
(ii) dry cow;
(iii) culling;
(iv) quarantine. [8 marks]
(b) Describe the life cycle of roundworm (Ascaris lumbricoides). [4 marks]
(c) Explain the term farm mechanization. [2 marks]
(d) Name four tractor coupled implements [4 marks]
(2) (a) State six limitations of farm mechanization in West Africa. [6 marks]
(b) Suggest six ways of encouraging farm mechanization in West Africa.
[6 marks] (c) List four methods of identification in cattle management. [4 marks] (d) What is debeaking in poultry management? [2 marks]
(3) (a) Mention two processes that release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere[2 marks] (b) Name four storage pests of crops [4 marks] (c) State two functions of Potassium in crops. [2 marks]
(d) List three ways by which each of the following biotic factors
affects agricultural production:
(i) parasites; (ii) soil organisms. [6 marks]
(e) State four advantages of zero tillage. [4 marks]
PAPER 3
(PRACTICAL)
(Instruction)
Specimens
A – Granite
B – Limestone
C – Marble
1.(a) Identify specimens A, B and C. [3 marks]
(b) Classify specimens A, B and C according to their mode of formation. [3 marks]
(c) State three characteristics of each of specimens A, B and C. [9 marks]
2. (a) Differentiate between specimens A and B [ 6 marks ]
(b) State four ways in which specimen A is important [ 4 marks ]
(c) Describe the formation of specimen A [ 5 marks ]
Waec Scheme for Government
There will be two papers – Paper 1 and Paper 2, both of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be composite and wlii be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: This will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions drawn from the entire syllabus. Candidates will be required to answer all the questions in 1 hour for 40 marks.
PAPER 2: This will be a two-hour essay type test consisting of two sections, Sections A and B.
Section A: Elements of Government
Shall contain five questions out of which candidates shall be required to attempt any two.
Section B: Political and Constitutional Developments in West Africa and International Relations
Shall contain sets of five questions. Each set shall be on one member country. Each candidate is to answer two questions chosen from the set on the country in which he/she is taking the examination.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVE)
1. One merit of decentralization is that
A. decisions on local matters are made daily.
B. it is less expensive to operate.
C. decision-making at national level is enhanced.
D. at the local levels, decisions can be taken.
2. Political parties are formed in order to
A. make laws for the state.
B. educate citizens on political issues.
C. recruit labour union leaders.
D. appoint civil and public servants.
3. The educated elite opposed indirect rule in West Africa because
A. it distorted the institution of chieftaincy.
B. the British had shortage of personnel.
C. it was successful in order parts of the world.
D. the elite took part in the administration of the territories.
4. The institution that protects the rights and liberties of citizens of a state is the
A. legislature.
B. executive.
C. judiciary.
D. media.
5. Public opinion is not measured through
A. elections.
B. lobbying.
C. referendum.
D. opinion poll.
6. In the presidential system of government, a bill becomes a law only when it receives assent by the
A. President.
B. Prime Minister.
C. Chief Justice.
D. Chief of Staff.
PAPER 2
(ESSAY)
SECTION A
For all candidates
1. Outline three merits and three demerits of Separation of Powers.
2. Explain six functions performed by political parties in your country.
3. Describe six factors that can determine the effectiveness of pressure groups
4. Explain six duties expected to be performed by a citizen of a state.
5. (a) What is a state?
(b) Outline five reasons why individuals must belong to a state.
SECTION B
For candidates in Nigeria only
6. How did the people of British West African territories govern themselves before the advent of colonial rule.
7. What are the main criticisms levelled against the 1946 Richards Constitution of Nigeria.
8. Outline six benefits Nigeria derives from her membership of the United Nations Organization.
For candidates in Sierra Leone only
9. Describe the political organization of the Mende of Sierra Leone in the pre-colonial period.
10. State four changes introduced by the 1961 Independence Constitution of Sier
CORRECT: 2016/2017 WAEC WASSCE Physics Practical (Alternative) Questions And Answer Expo/Runs
PHYSICS PRACTICAL:
1)
S/N: 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6
V(cm): 10.00 , 15.00 , 20.00 , 25.00 , 30.00 , 35.00
U(cm): 47.00 , 48.00 , 50.00 , 51.50 , 53.00 , 54.00
1a) Slope = Change in Y/Change in X
= Y2 - Y1 / X2 - X1
= 51.50 - 50.00/25.00 - 20.00
= 1.50/5.00
= 0.30
Ki = (1 - 2S / S)100
= (1 - 2 x 0.30 / 0.3)100
= 1.33
K2 = 2C/S - 160
= 2x44.50/0.3 - 160
= 136.67
1x)
* I ensure that I avoides paralax error when taking from the meter rule
* I ensure that I avoided drought to prevent sw?ngling of the mass
1bi)
The condition under which rigid body remains in equilibrum when acted upon the three non parallel coplanner forces are
I) The force must be corrected ie they must meet at point
II) The resultant force must be equal to Zero
III) The force
can be represented in magnitude and direction by sides of a triangular.
1(a)
Precautions
i I avoided drought to prevent swinging of the mass Q
ii I avoided parallax error in reading the metre rule
iii I avoided that the mass did not rest on the table
(1) b(i) Moment of a force about a point is the product of the force sF and the perpendicular distance from the point to the line of force.
Example opening of door, turning of tap,riding of bicycle.
1 b(ii) (a) The principle of moment states that if a body is in equilibrium the the sum of the clockwise turning moments acting upon it about any point equals the sum of the anticlockwise turning moment about the same point.
(b) The term equilibrium meabs that when a body acted on by several forces and it does not accelerate or rotate, it is said to be at equilibrium.
2bi)Heat Capacity: is the amount of heat required to change its temperature by one degree, and has units of energy per
degree.
(3a)
TABULATE
S/N|E(v)|V(v)|I(A)|V^-1(v^-1)|I^-1(A^-1)
1 |1.50|0.80|0.40| 1.250 |2.500
2 |3.00|1.40|0.70| 0.714 |1.429
3 |4.50|2.00|1.00| 0.500 |1.000
4 |6.00|2.50|1.20| 0.400 |0.833
5 |7.50|3.20|1.50| 0.313 |0.667
Precautions:
-I tightened all the wires tightly together
-I ensured clean terminals
-I avoided zero error on the ammeter used
(3bi)
-By using electric cells
-By using electrostatic method
(3bii)
For parallel connection=1/R=1/R+1/R
2Rt=R
Rt=R/2ohm
Total=(R/2)+2
4=(R/2)+2
4=(R+4)/2
8=R+4
8-4=R
R=4ohm
1i)
Centre of gravity =50.5
TABULATE
S/N-A(cm)-B(cm)
1-10.0-51.90
2-15.0-53.50
3-20.0-53.80
4-25.0-54.90
5-30.0-55.80
1xii)
-I avoided the effect of draught during the experiment
-I avoided error due to parallax on the metre rule
-I balanced the metre rule horizontally on the knife edge before taking my readings
1bi)
Moment of a force about a point is the product of the force and its perpendicular distance from the point to the line of action of the force. i.e moment=force*time and its unit is Nm
1bii)
-Sum of forces acting in one direction must equal to the forces acting in another direction.
-The algebric sum of moment acting about a point must be equal to zero
GOOD LUCK
1)
S/N: 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6
V(cm): 10.00 , 15.00 , 20.00 , 25.00 , 30.00 , 35.00
U(cm): 47.00 , 48.00 , 50.00 , 51.50 , 53.00 , 54.00
1a) Slope = Change in Y/Change in X
= Y2 - Y1 / X2 - X1
= 51.50 - 50.00/25.00 - 20.00
= 1.50/5.00
= 0.30
Ki = (1 - 2S / S)100
= (1 - 2 x 0.30 / 0.3)100
= 1.33
K2 = 2C/S - 160
= 2x44.50/0.3 - 160
= 136.67
1x)
* I ensure that I avoides paralax error when taking from the meter rule
* I ensure that I avoided drought to prevent sw?ngling of the mass
1bi)
The condition under which rigid body remains in equilibrum when acted upon the three non parallel coplanner forces are
I) The force must be corrected ie they must meet at point
II) The resultant force must be equal to Zero
III) The force
can be represented in magnitude and direction by sides of a triangular.
1(a)
Precautions
i I avoided drought to prevent swinging of the mass Q
ii I avoided parallax error in reading the metre rule
iii I avoided that the mass did not rest on the table
(1) b(i) Moment of a force about a point is the product of the force sF and the perpendicular distance from the point to the line of force.
Example opening of door, turning of tap,riding of bicycle.
1 b(ii) (a) The principle of moment states that if a body is in equilibrium the the sum of the clockwise turning moments acting upon it about any point equals the sum of the anticlockwise turning moment about the same point.
(b) The term equilibrium meabs that when a body acted on by several forces and it does not accelerate or rotate, it is said to be at equilibrium.
2bi)Heat Capacity: is the amount of heat required to change its temperature by one degree, and has units of energy per
degree.
(3a)
TABULATE
S/N|E(v)|V(v)|I(A)|V^-1(v^-1)|I^-1(A^-1)
1 |1.50|0.80|0.40| 1.250 |2.500
2 |3.00|1.40|0.70| 0.714 |1.429
3 |4.50|2.00|1.00| 0.500 |1.000
4 |6.00|2.50|1.20| 0.400 |0.833
5 |7.50|3.20|1.50| 0.313 |0.667
Precautions:
-I tightened all the wires tightly together
-I ensured clean terminals
-I avoided zero error on the ammeter used
(3bi)
-By using electric cells
-By using electrostatic method
(3bii)
For parallel connection=1/R=1/R+1/R
2Rt=R
Rt=R/2ohm
Total=(R/2)+2
4=(R/2)+2
4=(R+4)/2
8=R+4
8-4=R
R=4ohm
1i)
Centre of gravity =50.5
TABULATE
S/N-A(cm)-B(cm)
1-10.0-51.90
2-15.0-53.50
3-20.0-53.80
4-25.0-54.90
5-30.0-55.80
1xii)
-I avoided the effect of draught during the experiment
-I avoided error due to parallax on the metre rule
-I balanced the metre rule horizontally on the knife edge before taking my readings
1bi)
Moment of a force about a point is the product of the force and its perpendicular distance from the point to the line of action of the force. i.e moment=force*time and its unit is Nm
1bii)
-Sum of forces acting in one direction must equal to the forces acting in another direction.
-The algebric sum of moment acting about a point must be equal to zero
GOOD LUCK
Fuel Scarcity: NSCDC To Monitor Petrol Stations Against Black Market Operators
Abuja — In a move aimed at curtailing the activities of black market
operators and others benefiting from people’s misery, the Commandant
General of Nigeria Security & Civil Defence Corps ( NSCDC) Alhaji
Abdullahi Gana Muhammadu has ordered a 24-hour surveillance of petrol
stations by the Officers of the corps.
FUEL-2016-g
Officials of the NSCDC would therefore be assigned to petrol stations across the country in order to carry out the directive.
Gana gave this order immediately after he met with the Minister of State for Petroleum Resources, Mr. Ibe Kachikwu at NNPC towers Abuja on Thursday, he handed down the order as the widespread fuel scarcity in the country continues to bite hard.
Government has also outlawed selling of petrol on roadsides and directed the NSCDC official to arrest and prosecute offenders.
He therefore ordered the deployment of officers of the Corps to petrol stations across the country to help check sharp practices and ensure the smooth supply and distribution of the product.
Briefing Journalists on the development, the Commandant General said that before the latest direct NSCDC had carried out 24-hour surveillance on oil terminals where crude oil is being loaded and on the rigs where drilling operations take place.
He said 280 officers have been deployed in Abuja metropolis to ease the operations of NNPC and also officers of the corps have also been deployed in the same vein in states like, Delta, Edo, Lagos, Ogun, Osun and Oyo state.
The Minister of State for Petroleum Resources and Group Managing Director of the NNPC, Mr. Ibe Kachikwu, during the meeting, stated that the involvement of NSCDC operatives became necessary following the need to ensure total eradication of queues from fuel stations across the country and for effective monitoring of the distribution system.
“This calls for effective monitoring of the supply system, especially at the end points, to ascertain that what is trucked out from the depots is delivered at the designated fuel stations and dispensed to the public in the most efficient manner. We need you to be out there to help achieve this; we can’t be at ease while Nigerians are going through so much pain to get fuel.”
He called on the officers deployed for monitoring duties to be vigilant and ensure that all the petrol designated for their respective stations is delivered and dispensed to members of the public in a most efficient manner.
FUEL-2016-g
Officials of the NSCDC would therefore be assigned to petrol stations across the country in order to carry out the directive.
Gana gave this order immediately after he met with the Minister of State for Petroleum Resources, Mr. Ibe Kachikwu at NNPC towers Abuja on Thursday, he handed down the order as the widespread fuel scarcity in the country continues to bite hard.
Government has also outlawed selling of petrol on roadsides and directed the NSCDC official to arrest and prosecute offenders.
He therefore ordered the deployment of officers of the Corps to petrol stations across the country to help check sharp practices and ensure the smooth supply and distribution of the product.
Briefing Journalists on the development, the Commandant General said that before the latest direct NSCDC had carried out 24-hour surveillance on oil terminals where crude oil is being loaded and on the rigs where drilling operations take place.
He said 280 officers have been deployed in Abuja metropolis to ease the operations of NNPC and also officers of the corps have also been deployed in the same vein in states like, Delta, Edo, Lagos, Ogun, Osun and Oyo state.
The Minister of State for Petroleum Resources and Group Managing Director of the NNPC, Mr. Ibe Kachikwu, during the meeting, stated that the involvement of NSCDC operatives became necessary following the need to ensure total eradication of queues from fuel stations across the country and for effective monitoring of the distribution system.
“This calls for effective monitoring of the supply system, especially at the end points, to ascertain that what is trucked out from the depots is delivered at the designated fuel stations and dispensed to the public in the most efficient manner. We need you to be out there to help achieve this; we can’t be at ease while Nigerians are going through so much pain to get fuel.”
He called on the officers deployed for monitoring duties to be vigilant and ensure that all the petrol designated for their respective stations is delivered and dispensed to members of the public in a most efficient manner.
List Of Nigerian Universities & Polytechnics With Their Current School Fees Payment
This is the current school fees payment for various Nigerian
Institution. This thread is an essential prerequisite for Candidates who
want to choose school in their upcoming Jamb Exam.
We, the Freshlink team deem it necessary to inform all Jambites, in order to avoid unnecessarily risk (prudent) when choosing their school of Choice and also to be precient in the Nigerian institution school fees payment.
NOTE:- If I did not mention your School Or Have made any errors, Just Comment on this Page, We will definitely work on it Immediately. Liveschoolnews team want all Students to be propitious in their endeavour.
Below are the Lists of Nigerian Institution and their various school fees
*KWARAPOLY=INDEGENE-#28,000, NON INDEGENE- #44,000
*LAUTECH=INDEGENE-65,000, NON INDEGENE- #72,500 (STAYLITE-300L UPWARD= #40,000 TO #50,000)
*AAUA=#24,500
*UNIBEN=FRESHERS- #45,000 (STAYLITE SCIENCE- #14,000, STAYLITE ART-#12,000)
*UNICAL=#28,000
*FUTO=#48,300 TO #49,000
*ILARO=#32,550
*AAU =#40,000
*KSU=FRESHERS-#37,500 (200L-#26,600, 300L- #15,500)
*FUTMINNA=FRESHERS-#37,000, (RETURNING STUDENTS-#20,000)
*FEDPOLY ILORA=#59,530
*NSUK=#29,000
*MAPOLY=INDEGENE-#57,000, NON- INDEGENE- #62,000 (It Varies With Dept. Some students pay 75,000)
*UNN=#50,000
*TASUED=#94,000
*OSUSTECH=INDEGENE-#100,000, NON-INDEGENE- #150,000
*PLASU=INDEGENE-#50,000, NON-INDEGENE- #100, 000
*OAU=#60,000 (faculty- 12,000, it depends on faculty, but the highest is not more than 15,000)
*FUTA=FRESHERS-#49,000, (RETURNING-#14,150)
*UNIZIK=FRESHERS-#20,100, (RETURNING-#21,000
*OSUN POLY=#25,500
*FEDPOFFA=#17,000
*OOU=FRESHERS-#110,000 TO #250,000 (STAYLITE- #42,000 UPWARD)
*ABIA POLY=56,550 AND 61,000, (DEPENDING ON THE DEPARTMENT.)
*BUK=#16,000
*ABU ZARIA=#23,000, DIPLOMA-#41,000
*ANSU=100L-#139,000, 200L-#129,000, 300L- #106,000, 400L AND 500L-#76,000
*LEAD CITY UNI=#590,000
*KSUTA=FRESHERS-#80,000, RETURNING STUDENTS- #53,000
*FUNAAB=FRESHERS- #24,000+, (STAYLITE- #14,000)
*FEDPOLY NEKEDE=ND1-#31,000, ND2-#24,000
*MOUAU=#33,500
*FUOYE=#102,000
*RUFUS GIWA POLY=#70,000
*FEDPOLY ADO= FRESHERS- #22,000, (STAYLITE-11,000)
*I.M.T ENUGU=#49,300
*UNIABUJA=#32,500
*IMSU=75,000 AS ACCEPTANCE FEE,
*OSPEL IREE=#25,600
*IMSU=INDIGENE- #120,000, NON-INDEGENE- #150,000
*POLYIBADAN= #75,000
*UNIOSUN =#95000
*LASU= IS BTW #195,000 AND #310,000.
*OYO STATE COLLEGE OF AGRICULTURE=INDEGENE- #47,250, NON-INDEGENE- #52,250
*EKITI STATE UNIVERSITY (EKSU)=REGULAR- #77,500, PART TIME- #78,000. UNILORIN=FRESHER-#34,000 TO 37,000, (400L- #14900, 300L- #15400, 200L,- #16000).
*ABSU= #150,000. ESUT=INDEGENE AND NON-INDEGENE, 100L, 200L - #122,250 (300L-#102,000, 400L-#67,000 respectively)
*RSUST=INDEGENE- #20,200, NON-INDEGENE- #70,200
*ODUDUWA UNIVERSITY=#356,000
*DORBEN POLYTECHNIC,ABUJA=FULL TIME- #176,000, PART TIME= #220,000.
*CRUTECH CALABAR= #83,000
*IMOPOLY=ND-#30,000, HND-# 40,000
==================
Remember, If you have any questions or any problem on this, You Can Reach us by comment below. We would be glad to be of assistance.
We, the Freshlink team deem it necessary to inform all Jambites, in order to avoid unnecessarily risk (prudent) when choosing their school of Choice and also to be precient in the Nigerian institution school fees payment.
NOTE:- If I did not mention your School Or Have made any errors, Just Comment on this Page, We will definitely work on it Immediately. Liveschoolnews team want all Students to be propitious in their endeavour.
Below are the Lists of Nigerian Institution and their various school fees
*KWARAPOLY=INDEGENE-#28,000, NON INDEGENE- #44,000
*LAUTECH=INDEGENE-65,000, NON INDEGENE- #72,500 (STAYLITE-300L UPWARD= #40,000 TO #50,000)
*AAUA=#24,500
*UNIBEN=FRESHERS- #45,000 (STAYLITE SCIENCE- #14,000, STAYLITE ART-#12,000)
*UNICAL=#28,000
*FUTO=#48,300 TO #49,000
*ILARO=#32,550
*AAU =#40,000
*KSU=FRESHERS-#37,500 (200L-#26,600, 300L- #15,500)
*FUTMINNA=FRESHERS-#37,000, (RETURNING STUDENTS-#20,000)
*FEDPOLY ILORA=#59,530
*NSUK=#29,000
*MAPOLY=INDEGENE-#57,000, NON- INDEGENE- #62,000 (It Varies With Dept. Some students pay 75,000)
*UNN=#50,000
*TASUED=#94,000
*OSUSTECH=INDEGENE-#100,000, NON-INDEGENE- #150,000
*PLASU=INDEGENE-#50,000, NON-INDEGENE- #100, 000
*OAU=#60,000 (faculty- 12,000, it depends on faculty, but the highest is not more than 15,000)
*FUTA=FRESHERS-#49,000, (RETURNING-#14,150)
*UNIZIK=FRESHERS-#20,100, (RETURNING-#21,000
*OSUN POLY=#25,500
*FEDPOFFA=#17,000
*OOU=FRESHERS-#110,000 TO #250,000 (STAYLITE- #42,000 UPWARD)
*ABIA POLY=56,550 AND 61,000, (DEPENDING ON THE DEPARTMENT.)
*BUK=#16,000
*ABU ZARIA=#23,000, DIPLOMA-#41,000
*ANSU=100L-#139,000, 200L-#129,000, 300L- #106,000, 400L AND 500L-#76,000
*LEAD CITY UNI=#590,000
*KSUTA=FRESHERS-#80,000, RETURNING STUDENTS- #53,000
*FUNAAB=FRESHERS- #24,000+, (STAYLITE- #14,000)
*FEDPOLY NEKEDE=ND1-#31,000, ND2-#24,000
*MOUAU=#33,500
*FUOYE=#102,000
*RUFUS GIWA POLY=#70,000
*FEDPOLY ADO= FRESHERS- #22,000, (STAYLITE-11,000)
*I.M.T ENUGU=#49,300
*UNIABUJA=#32,500
*IMSU=75,000 AS ACCEPTANCE FEE,
*OSPEL IREE=#25,600
*IMSU=INDIGENE- #120,000, NON-INDEGENE- #150,000
*POLYIBADAN= #75,000
*UNIOSUN =#95000
*LASU= IS BTW #195,000 AND #310,000.
*OYO STATE COLLEGE OF AGRICULTURE=INDEGENE- #47,250, NON-INDEGENE- #52,250
*EKITI STATE UNIVERSITY (EKSU)=REGULAR- #77,500, PART TIME- #78,000. UNILORIN=FRESHER-#34,000 TO 37,000, (400L- #14900, 300L- #15400, 200L,- #16000).
*ABSU= #150,000. ESUT=INDEGENE AND NON-INDEGENE, 100L, 200L - #122,250 (300L-#102,000, 400L-#67,000 respectively)
*RSUST=INDEGENE- #20,200, NON-INDEGENE- #70,200
*ODUDUWA UNIVERSITY=#356,000
*DORBEN POLYTECHNIC,ABUJA=FULL TIME- #176,000, PART TIME= #220,000.
*CRUTECH CALABAR= #83,000
*IMOPOLY=ND-#30,000, HND-# 40,000
==================
Remember, If you have any questions or any problem on this, You Can Reach us by comment below. We would be glad to be of assistance.
