Below is the list of the Waec Schemes / Sample questions for selected subjects.
Waec Scheme for MathematicsThere will be two papers, Papers 1 and 2, both of which must be taken.
PAPER
1: will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions, drawn
from the common areas of the syllabus, to be answered in 1½ hours for 50
marks.
PAPER 2: will consist of thirteen essay questions in
two sections – Sections A and B, to be answered in 2½ hours for 100
marks. Candidates will be required to answer ten questions in all.
Section
A - Will consist of five compulsory questions, elementary in nature
carrying a total of 40 marks. The questions will be drawn from the
common areas of the syllabus.
Section B - will consist of eight
questions of greater length and difficulty. The questions shall include a
maximum of two which shall be drawn from parts of the syllabuses which
may not be peculiar to candidates’ home countries. Candidates will be
expected to answer five questions for 60marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. If log10X = 0. 7549 and log10Y = 0.3285, find log10XY.
A. 0.4256
B. 0.2479
C. 1.0826
D. 2.2956
2. Convert 13.025 to base 10.
A. 8.08
B. 8.80
C. 808
D. 880
3. Simplify : 3x+1(2x-1) .
2-1 (6x)
A. 6
B. 3
C. 3x
D. 2x
4.
A bonus issue of ordinary shares on the basis of three new shares for
every five held has been made by a company. What will be the increase in
the number of shares of an investor who originally had 75,000 ordinary
shares?
A. 15,000
B. 25,000
C. 45,000
D. 75,000
5. Find the equation of the line which is perpendicular to y = and which passes through the point (1, 3).
A. y = -3x
B. y = 3x
C. y = -3x + 6
D. y = 3x – 6
6. Which of the following is represented by the shaded region of the Venn
diagram below?2016 Waec Scheme for Mathematics
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)[/size] 
English Language WAEC Sample QuestionsThere
will be three papers – Papers 1, 2 and 3, all of which must be taken.
Papers 1 and 2 will be combined in a composite paper to be taken at one
sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of eighty multiple choice questions, all of which should be answered within 1 hour for 40 marks.
PAPER
2: Will consist of five essay topics and a passage each to test
candidates’ comprehension and summary skills. Candidates will be
expected to write an essay on one of the topics and answer all the
questions on Comprehension and Summary passages. The paper will last 2
hours and carry 100 marks.
PAPER 3: Will consist of sixty multiple
choice items on Test of Orals for candidates in Nigeria and Liberia, and
that on Listening Comprehension for candidates in Ghana, The Gambia and
Sierra Leone. All the questions will be answered in 45 minutes for 30
marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
SECTION 1
In each of the
following sentences, there is one underlined word and one gap. From the
list of words lettered A to D, choose the one that is most nearly
opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same
time, correctly fill the gap in the sentence.
1. Most African countries face poverty while few enjoy ……………………….
A. influence
B. money
C. affluence
D. power
2. Last year our farmers cultivated more crops than they……………………….
A. destroyed
B. uprooted
C. harvested
D. yielded
SECTION 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes each of the following sentences.
3. There would have been a riot in our school but for the timely……………..of our staff.
A. intervention
B. interruption
C. interference
D. invasion
4. The armed robbers ……………every room in the bank to look for money.
A. explored
B. ransacked
C. raked
D. swept
SECTION 3
After
each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations is
given. Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for
each sentence.
5. Ade is too clever by half. This means that Ade is
A. far cleverer than others.
B. actually very stupid in his behaviour.
C. annoyingly clever.
D. behaving to be clever but is not.
6. Ameh is really being economical with the truth. This means that Ameh
A. is being praised for being honest.
B. does not know enough.
C. knows more than he is prepared to say.
D. is not telling the truth.
SECTION 4
From
the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, chose
the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
word as it is used in the sentence.
7. By failing to attend the interview, Idoko has lost a golden opportunity.
A. blessed
B. bright
C. good
D. delightful
8. I hope the principal would be gracious enough to forgive us.
A. cordial
B. polite
C. merciful
D. gentle
SECTION 5
From
the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the word or group
of words that best completes each of the following sentences.
9. A good citizen abides ...............the rules of the land.
A. with
B. in
C. at
D. by
10. Since his swearing in, the governor ...................
.his hometown.
A. had not been visiting
B. has not visited
C. did not visit
D. had not visited
PAPER 2
SECTION A
(50 MARKS)
Answer one question only from this section. All questions carry equal marks. Your answer should not be less than 450 words.
You are advised to spend about 50 minutes on this section.
1.
Your friend in another school has requested information about your
school to enable him to decide on moving over to your school. Write a
letter to him discussing at least three areas in which your school
excels.
2. Write an article for publication in your school magazine,
discussing the reasons why children in your area drop out of school and
suggesting ways of minimizing it.
3. As the president of your youth
club, write a letter to the chairman of your Local Government
Association complaining about the increasing rate of child labour and
suggesting ways of curbing it.
4. You are the chief speaker in a
debate on the topic: Women should not be in paid employment while still
bearing children. Write your contribution for or against the topic.
5. Write a story that ends with the words: That experience will linger on my mind for a long time.
SECTION B
COMPREHENSION
(20 marks)
Dele
groaned and got out of bed. There was no clock on the mantel piece and
the room was still dark, but he knew that he was already late for work,
probably by an hour. He was a commercial bus driver and had to get
started as early as 5.00a.m. and go almost non-stop till about 9.00 p.m.
to be able to make the daily returns that the bus owner demanded.
On
the previous day, he had attended an all-night party – a late uncle’s
burial ceremony – where he had drunk himself almost senseless before
crawling home in the early hours of the morning. Now, he got up shakily,
splashed water on his face and hurried off to work, but not before
carefully fastening on his upper left arm the amulet he had always worn
for protection against accidents. A similar amulet hung concealed under
the steering column of his bus. On his way, still feeling groggy, he
caught his left toe against a stump and had some misgiving. It was a bad
sign, and he was supposed to go back home and then set out again. But
there was no time for that now, so he hurried on.
At the bus station,
Dele quickly loaded his bus and sped off without any of the necessary
checks on the vehicle. He had to make up for lost time. It was the rush
hour, so the bus was overloaded as it often was, with many passengers
hanging on to the doors. The tyres were threadbare, the brakes were
faulty and the road was wet, but, still feeling a little sleepy, Dele
sped on. Many passengers protested about his reckless driving, but he
would not listen. After all, didn’t he have protection against accident?
As
the vehicle took the last turn before its destination, Dele saw a
broken-down truck blocking his side of the road. Under normal
circumstances, he could have brought the bus safely to a halt, bur the
circumstances were far from normal. The careering bus hit the parked
vehicle, swerved wildly across the road and plunged into a ditch.
Dele’s surprise before he sank into oblivion was the failure of his supposedly protective amulets.
(a) Why did Dele wake up late?
(b) …he caught his left toe against a stump and had some misgivings. What does this tell us about Dele?
(c) Give two reasons why Dele drove recklessly.
(d) Why was Dele unable to stop his faulty vehicle?
(e) What was Dele’s condition after the accident?
(f) After all, didn’t he have protection against accident? What literary device is used in this expression?
(g) …wildly across the road…
(i) What grammatical name is given to the expression as it is used in the passage?
(ii) What is its function?
(h) For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and can replace it in the passage:
i. probably;
ii. returns;
iii. groggy;
iv. misgiving
v. threadbare
vi. reckless.
SECTION C
(SUMMARY)
[30 MARKS]
You are advised to spend about 50 minutes on this section.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.
You
cannot expect to go through life without meeting problems.
Difficulties, perplexities and frustrations are an inevitable part of
human experience. Accepting this idea of the inevitability of problems
will help you to approach them in a robust frame of mind rather than
thinking that you are a victim specially singled out by malignant fate.
When
confronted with a problem, the first thing to do is gather all relevant
data to get acquainted with the facts of the case. Then write down
exactly what the problem is, stating it simply in black and white. This
gives you something definite with which to come to terms. The problem is
assessed and you will now have something concrete to deal with.
Next,
give serious thought to the problem, making sure that such thought does
not degenerate into worry as worry accomplishes nothing. Aim at clear,
dispassionate thought, viewing the problem as if it were a friend’s and
not your own. Look at it from all angles and from the point of view of
all concerned. You court disaster if you are entirely selfish in your
outlook. The single important purpose of all this is to discover all
possible solutions to the problem.
Having examined the problem
broadly and impartially, carefully examine all the possible solutions or
courses of action. The knowledge that you have done this will keep you
from useless regrets later, when you can remind yourself that all
courses of action were examined and you chose what appeared to be the
best. Next, eliminate all proposed solutions which are seen on further
thought to be impracticable.
You will now find that your list has
been whittled down to two or three possibilities. At this stage it is
often a good plan to get out into the open air. Go for a walk or a ride,
preferably somewhere with wide horizons. There, out in the open, review
the problem afresh. You will find it appears less formidable. Ask
yourself how the difficulty will appear in ten years’ time or even one!
This fresh review will enable you to make a final choice as you turn to
the remaining solutions and, before you return home, decide which one
you are going to adopt. As you go to sleep that night, let your last
thoughts be upon your decision. If, in the morning, you still feel it is
the best one to take, go ahead.
If you have a friend who is capable
of giving sound advice, consult him. Do this before your final decision,
so that you will have the benefit of his views before you decide.
Talking things over with another is always a great help. It enables you
to isolate the problem and to decide which on which factors are
important. Even if the friend offers no advice, a sympathetic ear will
help you. Furthermore, as you describe to your friend the courses open
to you, you will see them in clearer light. Some will appear impossible
even as you speak. Alternatively, one will appear most attractive.
In
dealing with problems, remember the time factor. Although some problems
solve themselves in time, and delaying tactics is therefore the best
form of action for them, most other problems generally get more
complicated the longer they are left. You should therefore get to grips
with the problems immediately they occur.
All told, reasonable
foresight and imagination can prevent many problems ever arising. Tact,
thoughtfulness and responsible conduct can also keep life largely
problem-free.
In six sentences, one for each, summarize the steps to be taken when faced with a problem and state why each step is necessary.
PAPER 3
(TEST 0F ORALS)
For candidates in Nigeria and Liberia only
SECTION 1From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letters underlined.
1. wit
A. fright
B. wheat
C. tree
D. market
2. look
A. glue
B. you
C. cup
D. curious
SECTION 2From
the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same consonant
sound(s) as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.
3. dance
A. handsome
B. sandwich
C. adjective
D. pounding
4. plucked
A. smiled
B. slammed
C. luck
D. table
SECTION 3From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that rhymes with the given word.
5. carrier
A. area
B. barrier
C. serious
D. ravine
6. drought
A. crowd
B. nought
C. shout
D. taught
SECTION 4In
each of the following questions, the main/primary stress is indicated
by writing the syllable on which it occurs in capital letters. From the
words lettered A to D, choose the one that has the correct stress.
7. acrimony
A. A-cri-mo-ny
B. a-CRI-mo-ny
C. a-cri-MO-ny
D. a-cri-mo-NY
SECTION 5:In
the following options lettered A to D, all the words except one have
the same stress pattern. Identify the one with the different stress
pattern.
8. A. sanctify
B. promising
C. notify
D. organic
SECTION 6In
each of the following sentences, the word that receives the emphatic
stress is written in capital letters. From the questions lettered A to
D, choose the one to which the given sentence is the appropriate answer.
9. The DOCTOR examined the patient with a stethoscope.
A. Did the teacher examine the patient with a stethoscope?
B. Did the doctor cure the patient with a stethoscope?
C. Did the doctor examine the nurse with a stethoscope?
D. Did the doctor examine the patient with a telescope?
SECTION 7From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that contains the sound represented by the given phonetic symbol.
10. / ǝ /
A. accurate
B. nephew
C. ageless
D. waddle
Waec Literature in English Sample QuestionsLITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH EXAMINATION SCHEME
There
will be three papers – Papers 1, 2 and 3. Papers 1 and 2 will be
combined in a 1 hour 15 minutes composite paper and will be taken at one
sitting
Paper 1 will be a multiple choice objective test. It will contain fifty questions distributed as follows:
(a) Twenty questions on General Knowledge of Literature;
(b) Five questions on an unseen prose passage;
(c) Five questions on an unseen poem;
(d) Twenty context questions on the prescribed Shakespearean text.
Candidates will be required to answer all the questions within 1 hour for 50 marks.
Paper
2 will be an essay test with two sections, Sections A and B. Section A
will be on African Prose and Section B on Non African Prose.
Two
essay questions will be set on each of the novels prescribed for study.
Candidates shall be required to answer one question only from each
section within 1 hour 15 minutes for 50 marks.
Paper 3 will be on the
Drama and Poetry components of the syllabus. It will be put into four
sections, Sections A, B. C and D as follows:
Section A: African Drama
Section B: Non-African Drama
Section C: African Poetry
Section D: Non-African Poetry
There shall be two questions on each of the prescribed texts for each section.
Candidates
shall be required to answer one question from each of the sections,
making a total of four questions. The paper will take 2 hours 30 minutes
to complete and will carry 50 marks.
Note:
(i) The Unseen Prose passage for Paper 1 shall be about 120 – 150 words long.
(ii)
Only context questions shall be set on the Shakespearean text. The
context questions will test such items as theme, characterization, style
and setting in the Shakespearean text.
(iii) No essay question shall be set on the Shakespearean text.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
[General Knowledge on Literature]
1. ____________ is sung to put a child to sleep.
A. A ballad
B. A lullaby
C. A dirge
D. A pastoral
2. In drama the purposeful use of gestures and actions is
A. soliloquy.
B. mime.
C. eulogy.
D. aside.
3. Imagery in a literary work
A. creates suspense.
B. accentuates humour.
C. heightens the dramatic atmosphere.
D. appeals to the senses.
4. All the world’s a stage, is an example of
A. metaphor.
B. paradox.
C. allusion.
D. personification.
5. _________ is the time and place in which the action of a narrative takes place.
A. Denouement
B. Mood
C. Setting
D. Plot
6. A tale in which the characters are often animals is
A. a fable.
B. an epic.
C. a ballad.
D. an ode.
7. Love indeed is anything,
Yet indeed is nothing
illustrates the use of
A. apostrophe.
B. antithesis.
C. oxymoron.
D. parody.
8. A reader’s curiosity is sustained through
A. suspense.
B. conflict.
C. flashback.
D. climax.
9. A hilarious and absurd play can be referred to as
A. a farce.
B. a pantomime.
C. an ode.
D. a comedy.
.
10. It is a bitter sweet experience is an example of
A. metonymy.
B. pun.
C. onomatopoeia.
D. oxymoron.
PAPER 2
SECTION A
AFRICAN PROSE
ASARE KONADU: A Woman in her Prime
1. Discuss the relationship between Pokuwaa and Koramoa.
ADICHIE CHIMAMANDA NGOZI: Purple Hibiscus
2. Comment on the significance of the Palm Sunday clash.
SECTION B
NON-AFRICAN PROSE
WILLIAM GOLDING: Lord of the Flies
3. Discuss three symbols used in the novel.
ERNEST HEMINGWAY: The Old Man and the Sea
4. What are the consequences of Santiago’s pride in the novel?
PAPER 3
(DRAMA & POETRY)
SECTION A
AFRICAN DRAMA
KOBINA SEKYI: The Blinkards
1. To what extend is Mrs.Borofosem a blind imitator of the English ways of life?
FEMI OSOFISAN: Women of Owu
2. Discuss the plight of women in the play.
SECTION B
NON- AFRICAN DRAMA
BERNARD SHAW: Arms and the Man
3. Comment on the relationship between the Petkoffs and their servants.
OSCAR WILDE: The Importance of Being Earnest
4. Analyse the deceptive nature of Algernon.
SECTION C
AFRICAN POETRY
5. Discuss the poet’s diction in the “The Fence”.
SECTION D
NON-AFRICAN POETRY
6. Examine the theme of loneliness in “Daffodils”.
CRK CRS Scheme Waec Sample QuestionsThere will be two papers, Papers 1and 2, both of which will be a composite paper to be taken
at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple choice objective questions all of which must be
answered within 1 hour for 40 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of nine essay-type questions. Candidates will be required to
answer four questions within 2 hours for 60 marks.
The questions will be arranged in sections as follows:
Section A: Themes from the Old Testament - four questions.
Section B: Themes from the Synoptic Gospels - three questions.
Section C: Themes from the Acts of the Apostles, James and I Peter
- two questions.
Candidates will be required to answer four questions in all, choosing at least one
question from each section and the fourth question from either Section A or
Section B.
The Revised Standard Version of the Bible will be used in setting of questions.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. According to Hosea, Israel’s relationship with God is that of
A. a faithful wife with a faithless husband.
B. the love between a woman and her husband.
C. a faithless wife and a loving husband.
D. a repentant wife and her forgiving husband.
2. King Josiah was regarded as a defender of Jewish religion because he
A. killed all the priests of Baal.
B. converted all the worshippers of Baal.
C. built a new temple in Jerusalem.
D. reformed the corrupt religion of Israel.
3. When David was informed that the child born to him by Bethsheba had died, he
A. sought Nathan’s counsel on what to do.
B. anointed himself and worshipped the lord.
C. wept throughout the day.
D. tore his robe and went to his house.
4. Which of the following tribes accompanied Deborah and Barak to the war against
Jabin and Sisera?
A. Ephraim and Dan
B. Naphtali and Zebulun
C. Issachar and Reuben
D. Ephraim and Benjamin
5. The place where Moses experienced that the burning bush was not consumed was
A. Meriba.
B. Horeb.
C. Bethel.
D. Nebo.
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
SECTION A
[Themes from the Old Testament]
1. (a) How did\Solomon first apply his wisdom?
(b) In what three ways can God’s wisdom be applied?
2. (a) Narrate the events leading to Gehazi’s acquisition of leprosy.
(b) State two lessons that can be derived from the story.
SECTION B
[Themes from the Synoptic Gospels]
3. (a) Highlight the events that took place when Jesus was brought
before Caiaphas, the High Priest.
(b) State three consequences of bearing false witness.
SECTION C
[Themes from the Acts of the Apostles, James and I Peter]
4. (a) Outline the teaching of James on partiality.
(b) Give three reasons why Christians should avoid partiality.
2016 Waec Sample Questions for Integrated ScienceThere will be three papers, Papers 1, 2 and 3 all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be a
composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions all of which must be
answered within 1 hour for 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of six essay-type questions. Candidates will be required to answer four
questions within 1 hour 30 minutes for 20 marks each.
PAPER 3: Will consist of four questions on test of practical work. Candidates will be required
to answer all the questions within 2 hours for 60 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVE TEST)
1. The pH of water is
A. 2.
B. 5.
C. 7.
D. 14.
2. One characteristic feature of Kingdom Animalia is the possession of
A. celluse cell wall.
B. nervous system.
C. starch granules.
D. chlorophyll.
3. Which of the following statements explains the occurrence of large number of carbon
compounds? Carbon
A. is present in all living things
B. atom is tetravalent element
C. compounds dissolve readily in organic solvents
D. compounds burn readily in air
4. The instrument used to measure diameter of a thin wire is
A. thread and rule.
B. engineer’s callipers.
C. micrometer screw gauge.
D. spherometer.
5. A species X has 16 protons, 17 neutrons and 18 electrons. X must be
A. neutral atom equal of a metal.
B. a cation of two positive charges.
C. an anion of two negative charges.
D. an anion of one negative charge.
6. The main effect of diseases on crops is
A. reduction in photosynthesis.
B. inhability of roots to absorb water.
C. shortening of internodes.
D. reduction in the yield of produce.
7. A car fuse is marked 15A and operates on a 12 volt battery. Determine the resistance of
the fuse wire.
A. 0.8 ohms
B. 1.3 ohms
C. 3.00 ohms
D. 27.00 ohms
8. Rabbits are housed in a
A. pen.
B. hutch.
C. kraal.
D. sty.
9. Which of the following parts of a mammalian skin protects the tissues beneath from
mechanical injury?
A. Dermis
B. Cornified layer
C. Granular layer
D. Malphigian layer
10. An element which can be considered as a semi-metal is
A. argon.
B. carbon.
C. silicon.
D. sodium.
11. Respiration is essential to life since
A. food is oxidised.
B. oxygen is used up.
C. waste products are eliminated.
D. energy is released.
12. Which of the following statements about the importance of mulching are correct?
I. Prevention of the surface of soil from caking
II. Conservation of moisture
III. Washing away of dissolved nutrients
IV. Keeping the soil cool
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
13. A pulley system is used to lift a load of 300N. If the effort applied is 150N, determine the
mechanical advantage of the system.
A. 0.5
B. 2.0
C. 150
D. 450
14. The easiest method of fertilizer application is
A. band application.
B. broadcasting.
C. ring application.
D. spraying.
15. Which of the following characteristic features are associated with insect-pollinated
flower?
I. Brightly coloured petals
II. Large petals
III.
**** guider
IV. Pendulous stamen
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
1. (a) (i) What is a transistor?
(ii) Explain how a transistor behaves as a switch.
[5 marks]
(b) (i) Explain the term poultry.
(ii) State four reasons for keeping poultry.
[6 marks]
(c) Explain the following terms:
(i) population;
(ii) species.
[5 marks]
(d) (i) What are x-rays?
(ii) State two dangers associated with over exposure to x-rays.
[4marks]
2. (a) (i) What is plant tissue culture?
(ii) State three advantages of propagating a plant by tissue culture.
[5 marks]
(b) (i) Explain the term parturition as applied to animal production.
(ii) State three signs shown by an animal when parturition is about to occur.
[5 marks]
(c) Draw and label a ray diagram to show how the image of a point object is seen in a
plane mirror. [5 marks]
(d) A piece of zinc metal was placed in a beaker containing dilute hydrochloric acid.
(i) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction that took place.
(ii) If 10.4g of zinc was placed in the hydrochloric acid, determine the
amount, in moles of hydrochloric acid, that would be required to react with the
zinc completely.
[Zn = 65.4, H = 1, Cl = 35.5]
[5 marks]
3. (a) Explain the following terms as applied to sound waves:
(i) frequency;
(ii) loudness;
(iii) pitch.
[6 marks]
(b) (i) What is crop rotation?
(ii) State two advantages of crop rotation.
[4 marks]
(c) (i) List three kingdoms used in the classification
of living things.
(ii) State two reasons for classification of living things.
[5 marks]
(d) (i) Explain briefly how each of the following processes occurs:
(i) melting of a solid;
(ii) condensation of a gas.
[5 marks]
PAPER 3 (TEST OF PRACTICAL WORK)
1. A stock solution of 1M HCl was prepared by dissolving 3.65 g of HCl in 100 cm3 of
distilled water. 5 cm3 of the stock solution was put into each of the five measuring
cylinders labelled V1, V2 V3, V4, and V5 and diluted with different amounts of distilled
water to the volumes shown in the diagram below.
(a) (i) Read and record the volumes of the solution in each of the measuring
cylinders labelled V1, V2 V3, V4, andV5 respectively.
(ii) Determine the volume of water used to dilute 1M HCl in each of the
measuring cylinders. [ 8 marks]
(b) Calculate the concentration of solution in measuring cylinder V4 in
(i) mol dm-3
(ii) g dm-3
[6 marks]
2. The Figures F and G below illustrate organisms associated with farm animals.
Study the figures carefully and answer the questions that follow
(a) Identify organisms F and G. [ 2 marks]
(b) Which group of parasites do organisms F and G belong to?
[2 marks]
(c) State two symptoms each of the infestation of organisms F and G on the
animals they inhabit.
[4 marks]
(d) Briefly explain two common methods each of controlling organisms F and
G. [8 marks]
Waec Scheme: Biology Sample QuestionsThere will be three papers: Papers 1, 2 and 3, all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be
a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions drawn from
Section A of the syllabus (the section of the syllabus which is common to
all countries). It will carry 50 marks and last for 50 minutes.
PAPER 2: Will consist of six essay questions drawn from the entire syllabus. The
paper will be put into three sections, Sections A, B and C.
Section A: Will consist of four questions drawn from Section A of the syllabus.
Section B: Will be for candidates in Ghana only and will be drawn from Section
B of the syllabus (ie the section of the syllabus perculiar to Ghana). It
will consist of short-structured questions.
Section C: Will be for candidates in Nigeria, Sierra Leone, The Gambia and
Liberia and will be drawn from Section C of the syllabus (ie the section
of the syllabus containing material for those countries only). It will also
consist of short-structured questions.
Candidates will be expected to answer two questions from Section A and all the
short-structured questions from either Section B or Section C.
Each question in Section A will carry 20 marks while the compulsory short-
structured questions in Sections B and C will carry 30 marks. The total score will
be 70 marks. The paper shall take 1 hour 40 minutes.
PAPER 3: Will be a practical test (for school candidates) or a test of practical work
(for private candidates) lasting 2 hours and consisting of three sections:
Sections A, B and C.
Section A: This will consist of two compulsory questions drawn from Section A
of the syllabus, each carrying 25 marks.
Section B: This will be for candidates in Ghana only. It will consist of one
question drawn from Section B of the syllabus and will carry 30 marks.
Section C: This will be for candidates in Nigeria, Sierra Leone, The Gambia and
Liberia. It will consist of one question drawn from Section C of the
syllabus and will carry 30 marks.
Candidates will be expected to answer all the questions in Section A and one
question in either Section B or C. The paper will carry a total score of 80 marks.
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVES)
1. The organelle in eukaryotic cells which is involved in the intracellular digestion of food is
A. Golgi body.
B. lysosome.
C. mitochondrion.
D. ribosome.
2. Which of the following structures is common to Amoeba, Paramecium and Euglena?
A. Anal pore
B. Contractile vacuole
C. Flagellum
D. Oral groove
3. The tertiary consumer within the web is
A. grasshopper.
B. rabbit.
C. man.
D. lion.
4. A company was prohibited from producing bags made from leopard skin as a measure of
conserving
A. water.
B. forest.
C. wildlife.
D. land.
5. An allele constantly expressed in the appearance of an organism is said to be
A. recessive.
B. dominant.
C. hybrid.
D. sex linked.
6. A woman with blood group A is married to a man with blood group B. Both have an offspring
who could donate blood to both parents. The genotype of both parents must be
PAPER 2 (ESSAY) [30 MARKS]
1. a) Name two types of aquatic habitats. [2 marks]
For each habitat you named in (a) above, state
i. two plants;
ii. two animals, found in the habitat. [8 marks]
b) Explain briefly the following terms:
i. Allele;
ii. Phenotype. [4 marks]
c) State the feeding habit of the following organisms and two modifications each
that help them adapt to it.
i. Mosquito larva;
ii. Tapeworm. [8 marks]
d) Explain how sewage causes water pollution [6 marks]
e) List two processes that release carbon to the environment [2 marks]
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
1 a) i. Identify the specimens labelled A to E [5 marks]
ii. State the role of each specimen you have identified. [5 marks]
iii. Mention the advantages they have derived from living together as a group. [2 marks]
b) Observe specimens F and G carefully and use them to answer the
questions that follow.
i. Classify specimens F and G under the headings phylum and class. [4 marks]
ii. Make a labelled drawing 8-10 cm long of the lateral view of specimen G. [11 marks]
iii. State three adaptations of specimen G to its environment. [3 marks]
Sample Questions for Financial AccountingThere will be two papers – Paper 1 and Paper 2, both of which will constitute a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will comprise fifty multiple choice questions to be taken in 1 hour for 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will be made up of two sections: Sections A and B and will last 2½ hours.
Section
A: Will contain five essay questions on theory of financial accounting.
Candidates will be required to answer two out of the four questions for
15 marks each.
Section B: Will contain five essay questions on
financial accounting practice. Candidates will be required to answer
three out of the questions for 15 marks each.
SAMPLE QUESTION
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVE)
1. The double entry for a cheque returned by a bank to a customer marked “refer to drawer” is debit
A. bank, credit debtor.
B. bank, credit bad debt expenses.
C. bad debt expenses, credit bank.
D. debtor, credit bank.
2. Which of the following is a characteristic of joint venture?
A. The activities are of short term duration.
B. Individual maintains separate account.
C. There is perpetual succession.
D. There is limitation to membership.
3. The person who retains ownership of goods on consignment is
A. commission agent.
B. del-credere agent.
C. consignor.
D. consignee.
4. The computer program instructions are read into the
A. output unit.
B. input unit
C. storage unit.
D. central processing unit.
5. In Contract Accounts, retention money refers to the
A. amount due to the contractor but held back by the customer.
B. progressive payments made by the customer to the contractor.
C. contractor’s profit on the contract.
D. amount overpaid by the customer to the contractors.
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
SECTION A
THEORY OF FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
1. (a) Distinguish between reserves and provisions. (6 marks)
(b) Explain the following giving one example in each case:
(i) Depreciation;
(ii) Depletion;
(iii) Amortization. (9 marks)
2. (a) What is value added tax?
(b) Distinguish between input vat and output vat.
(c) State four features of Value Added Tax. (15 marks)
3. Explain the following terms as they are used in contract accounts:
(a) Notional profit;
(b) Retention money;
(c) Progress payments;
(d) Work certified;
(e) Work-in-progress. (15marks)
SECTION B
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING PRACTICE.
4. The following information is extracted from the book of Love Club as at December 2012:
Receipts and Payments account
GH¢ GH¢
Cash at bank 1/1/1012 2,120 Expense on dance 940
Subscription received 5,910 Repairs 220
Sale of dance tickets 730 Printing and stationery 310
Bar takings 4,110 New equipment 870
Electricity 320
Bar cost 3,020
Balance at bank 31/12/12 7,190
12,870 12,870
Additional information:
(i) Subscription in arrears GH¢
1/1/2012 450
31/12/2012 560
(ii) Subscription in advance
1/1/2012 370
31/12/2012 220
(iii) Cost of printing in arrears 110
(iv) Assets as at 1/1/2012:
Fixtures and fittings 8,700
Equipment 3,000
(v) Depreciation on fixed assets is to be provided at 15% per annum including the year of purchase.
You are required to prepare:
(a) accumulated fund as at 1/1/2012
(b) income and expenditure account for the year
(c) balance sheet as at 31/12/2012. (15 marks)
(5)
The debit side of Yahoo Ltd’s trial balance exceeds the credit side.
The net profit for the period was D4,210. Further investigation revealed
the following errors:
(i) Closing stock was under cast by D420,000;
(ii) Cash in hand was recorded as D66,000 instead of D660,000;
(iii) An invoice of D980,000 has been correctly included in the stock and purchases but not post to the personal ledgers;
(iv) The bank balance has been under cast by D1,860,000;
(v) An entire page in the Sales journal totaling D 2,450,000 was omitted from the postings to the Sales account;
(vi) A private purchase of D 550,000 had been included in the business purchases;
(vii) Insurance premium paid was under cast by D750,000;
(viii) The total of the purchases journal was carried forward, and subsequently posted to the purchases account as D 2,355,000
(ix)
Income tax of D 540, 000 on employees’ wages and salaries was owed to
the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) but no provision had been made for
this in the books.
You are required to:
(a) Show the journal entries necessary to correct the errors,
(b ) Draw up a statement to show the adjusted net profit. (15 marks)
Sample Physics QuestionsThere
will be three papers, Papers 1, 2 and 3, all of which must be taken.
Papers 1 and 2 will be a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple choice questions lasting 1¼ hours and carrying 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of two sections, Sections A and B lasting1½ hours and carrying 60 marks.
Section
A - Will comprise seven short-structured questions. Candidates will be
required to answer any five questions for a total of 15 marks.
Section B - Will comprise five essay questions out of which candidates will be required to answer any three for 45 marks.
PAPER
3: Will be a practical test for school candidates or an alternative to
practical work paper for private candidates. Each version of the paper
will comprise three questions out of which candidates will be required
to answer any two in 2¾ hours for 50 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. To rectify a current simply means to
A. increase the magnitude of the current.
B. measure the current using an ammeter.
C. convert the current from a.c to d.c.
D. connect more resistors in series in a circuit.
2. Which of the following statements is correct about laser light?
A. It converges at all times.
B. It diverges at all times.
C. It converges and diverges at different intervals.
D. It neither diverges nor converges.
3. X Y Z
0 0 0
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 1
The truth table above represents a two input X, Y and a Z output device(s). The device(s) is
A. AND gate.
B. NAND gate.
C. OR gate.
D. AND gate + inverter.
4. The dimensions of pressure is
A. ML-1T-2
B. ML T-2
C. ML3 T-2
D. ML-1T-
5. The recoil of a gun after it has been shot is a demonstration of
A. the principle of conservation of energy.
B. Newton’s second law of motion.
C. the principle of conservation of matter.
D. Newton’s third law of motion.
6
Two standard resistors of magnitudes 10 and 5 are connected in series
to a series arrangement of secondary cells. If the current through the
10 resistor is 5A, the current through the 5 resistor is
A. 2.5 A
B. 5.0 A
C. 7.5 A
D. 10.0 A.
PAPER 2
SECTION A
(Short Structures)
1. (a) How does an active satellite differ from a passive satellite? (b) State one use of an active satellite. [3 marks ]
2. (a) Draw a two input Nand gate. (b) State its truth table. [3 marks ]
SECTION B
(Essay)
1. (a) Define a photoelectron. [ 2 marks ]
(b) The equation below represents a radioactive decay
(i) What are the values of x and p? [2 marks
(ii) State the conservation principles used in deriving the values of x and p. [2 marks ]
(c) (i) What is meant by the half life of a radioactive substance?
(ii) A radioactive substance has a half-life of 3.8 days.
Calculate its decay constant. [5 marks]
(d) State one function of each of the following materials utilized by an operating nuclear reactor:
(i) Boron rods,
(ii) U235,
(iii) Graphite moderators [3 marks]
Waec Economics SchemeThere will be two papers - Paper 1 and Paper 2; both of which will be combined in a 3 hour composite paper.
Paper 1: will consist of fifty multiple choice questions to be taken in 1 hour for 50 marks.
Paper
2: will consist of eight essay- type questions in two sections:
Sections A and B. Section A shall be on data response. Candidates will
be required to answer four questions in all, choosing one question from
Section A and any three questions from Section B. The paper shall last 2
hours for 80 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
OBJECTIVE
1. One of the advantages of large scale production is that
A. there is a rise in the cost of administration.
B. consumers sacrifice their individual tastes.
C. the firm can use labour-saving machinery.
D. the demand for a firm’s products becomes localized.
2. The location of timber and plywood industries in West Africa is mainly influenced
by the availability of
A. transport.
B. water.
C. raw materials.
D. labour supply.
3. Malthus’ population theory states that
A. high death rate may lead to low productivity.
B. population may outgrow the means of subsistence.
C. people will always decide to have children.
D. migration may leave some parts of the world barren.
4. Which of the following is not likely to be an effect of a growing population?
A. Rise in demand
B. Unemployment
C. Fall in standard of living
D. High per capita income
5. Personal savings are generally low in West Africa because of
A. the level of income of the people.
B. the refusal of banks to grant loans.
C. overpopulation.
D. cheaper foreign currencies.
6. Devaluation of currency in a country is likely to lead to
A. increasing population.
B. increasing imports.
C. exports becoming cheaper.
D. reduced exports.
7. Which of the following is not a benefit derived from the petroleum industry?
A. Increased foreign exchange earnings
B. Establishment of refineries and petrochemical industries
C. Employment of a greater proportion of the population
D. Development of airports, seaports and other social infrastructure
8. An efficient weapon used in resolving disputes between employees is
A. co-operation.
B. collective bargaining.
C. display of placards.
D. legal action.
9. A country’s balance of payment is in deficit when
A. a country’s payments for imports of invisible goods are greater than her receipts from exports of invisible goods.
B.
the total receipts from her export of visible and invisible goods are
greater than her payments for visible and invisible imports.
C. it can record a surplus on current account of her balance of payments accounts.
D. the total payments for visible and invisible imports are greater than the total
receipts from her exports of visible and invisible goods.
10. Which of the following features best describes peasant agriculture in West Africa? It
A. specializes in the production of one crop.
B. involves the use of small farm holdings.
C. is a capital-intensive system of farming.
D. is mostly associated with tree crops
PAPER 2
(ESSAY)
1. The table below represents a traveller’s consumption of bottles of Coca-Cola.
Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:-
No. of Bottles
Total Utility
Marginal Utility
(a) Determine the missing figures D, E, F, G and H.
(b) Draw the demand curve for the traveller’s consumption of Coca-Coca.
(c) Explain the law of diminishing marginal utility as the basis for the slope of the traveller’s demand curve.
2. (a) Distinguish between economic activities and an economic system.
(b) Explain the following terms:
(i) production;
(ii) distribution;
(iii) consumption.
3. (a) With the aid of a diagram, explain a minimum price.
(b) State any five measures by which a minimum price for an agricultural produce can be made effective.
4. (a) Describe the output method of measuring the gross domestic product of a country.
(b) How is the net national product at factor cost obtained from gross domestic product?
(c) State two problems associated with the output method.
5. (a) Explain the function of money as a
(i) measure of value;
(ii) store of value.
(b) Show how inflation affects these two functions of money.
6. (a) What is a commercial bank?
(b) Describe any four ways by which the Central Bank controls the amount of
credit given by the commercial banks.
7. (a) Differentiate between human capital and physical capital.
(b) State three ways of improving on the stock of human capital in your
country.
Further Math Waec Sample Questions SchemeThere will be two papers, Papers 1 and 2, both of which must be taken.
PAPER 1: will consist of forty multiple-choice objective questions, covering the entire
syllabus. Candidates will be required to answer all questions in 1
hours for 40
marks. The questions will be drawn from the sections of the syllabus as follows:
Pure Mathematics - 30 questions
Statistics and probability - 4 questions
Vectors and Mechanics - 6 questions
PAPER 2: will consist of two sections, Sections A and B, to be answered in 2 hours for 100 marks.
Section A will consist of eight compulsory questions that are elementary in type for 48
marks. The questions shall be distributed as follows:
Pure Mathematics - 4 questions
Statistics and Probability - 2 questions
Vectors and Mechanics - 2 questions
Section B will consist of seven questions of greater length and difficulty put into three parts:
Parts I, II and III as follows:
Part I: Pure Mathematics - 3 questions
Part II: Statistics and Probability - 2 questions
Part III: Vectors and Mechanics - 2 questions
Candidates will be required to answer four questions with at least one from each part for 52 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVES)
1. Find the equation of the line joining points (8, 1) and (-3, 4).
A. 3x – 11y – 35 = 0
B. 3x – 11y + 35 = 0
C. 3x + 11y – 35 = 0
D. 3x + 11y + 35 = 0
2. The sum of the first and sixth terms of an Arithmetic progression (A.P.) is 21. If
the first term is 3, find the eighth term.
A. 24
B. 27
C. 30
D. 33
3. If and are the roots of the equation 2x2 – 5x + m = 0, where m is a constant,
find ( 2 + 2) in terms of m.
A. + 2m
B. + m
C. - 2m
D. – m
4. Given that y =cos2x, find
A. -sin2x
B. –cos x sin x
C. -2cosx sinx
D. -2sin2x
5. The position vectors of points P, Q and R are p = 4j, q = (4i + 10j) and r = (ki +
8j) respectively, where k is a constant. If ∠PQR = 90o, find the value of k.
A. 7
B. 1
C. -1
D. -7
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
SECTION A
1. Given that * is a binary operation defined on R, the set of real numbers by
x*y = x2/x+y
, where x, y R.
(a) evaluate (2 * 3) * 5.
(b) If (x + 1) * (x + 2) =
, find the value of x.
2. The marks scored by forty candidates in an examination are shown
in the table.
If the mean of the distribution is 4.725, find the values of m and n.
SECTION B
Part I (Pure Mathematics)
Part II (Statistics and Probability)
4. The deviations from 10 of a given set of numbers are 2, 1, 0, -4, -5,
- 1, - 2 and – 7. Find the:
(i) mean;
(ii) median;
(iii) standard deviation of the numbers.
WAEC Exam Scheme for Civic EducationThere will be two papers, paper 1 and paper 2; both of which will be in a composite paper and will be taken at one sitting.
Paper
1: This will be a 1-hour multiple choice test consisting of fifty
questions drawn from the entire syllabus and will carry 40 marks.
Paper
2: This paper will be a 2- hour essay type test consisting of three
sections: Sections A, B, C. Each section shall contain three questions.
Candidates will be required to answer four questions choosing at least
one from each Section. The paper will carry 60 marks. The sections shall
cover the following areas of the syllabus:
Section A: National ethics, discipline, rights and obligations
Section B: Emerging Issues in the society
Section C: Governmental system and processes
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVES)
1. Which of the following is an acceptable societal value?
A. Honesty
B. Merriment
C. Praise singing
D. Family planning
2. Which of the following is an effective way of resolving inter-communal conflict?
A. Meditation
B. Dialogue
C. Litigation
D. Avoidance
3. When there is a dispute in a community, members should
A. be indifferent to the issue.
B. cooperate with others.
C. leave the community entirely.
D. be resolute to their cause.
4. Community development projects can best be achieved if the people are
A. cooperative.
B. religious.
C. optimistic.
D. knowledgeable
5. Which of the following is a major problem of the Nigerian Civil Service?
A. Neutrality
B. Red tapism
C. Impartiality
D. Anonymity
6. The civic obligation of a citizen includes
A. political socialization.
B. political participation.
C. engaging in family planning.
D. engaging in business ventures.
7. The following are goals of citizenship education except
A. preparing learners for leadership.
B. developing appropriate attitude in the learners.
C. creating job opportunities.
D. providing social amenities.
8. HIV/AIDS is spread mainly through
A. indiscriminate sexual intercourse.
B. kissing and hugging.
C. sharing toiletries with victims.
D. handshake with victims.
9. People living with HIV/AIDS could be assisted by
A. isolating them.
B. showing them love.
C. blaming them.
D. avoiding them.
10. Which of the following does not promote national consciousness?
A. Respect for the symbols and identities of the country
B. Promotion of people’s culture and tradition
C. Appropriate use of the mass media
D. Inappropriate use of state property
11. Modern countries adopt rule of law in order to make
A. lawyers independent.
B. the law supreme.
C. the judiciary part of legislature.
D. laws in parliament.
12. The habit of obeying traffic regulations helps the individual to
A. report late at work.
B. avoid unnecessary accident.
C. be lazy at work.
D. use unauthorized route.
13. Which of the following roles should a responsible parent perform?
A. Sending the children to hawk on the street
B. Instilling in children appropriate values and attitude
C. Encouraging early marriage
D. Showing favour to a particular child
14. A challenge facing the protection of human rights in Nigeria is
A. absence of public complaints commission.
B. failure of leaders to promote rule of law.
C. independence of the judiciary.
D. press freedom.
15. Election is a key pillar of democracy because it helps to
A. determine the legitimacy of government.
B. unite the country against external aggression.
C. create goodwill and unity among political parties.
D. identify the richest political party in Nigeria.
PAPER 2
(ESSAY)
1. (a) What is citizenship education?
(b) Identify four roles of citizenship education.
2. (a) What is inter-communal conflict?
(b) Highlight four ways of resolving inter-communal conflicts in Nigeria.
3. In what five ways can the legislature contribute to the development of democracy in
Nigeria?
4. (a) Define democracy.
(b) State four ways of promoting democracy in Nigeria.
5. (a) Explain the term Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
(b) State four reasons for the introduction of the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights (UDHR).
Waec Scheme for Agric ScienceThere
will be three papers: Papers 1, 2 and 3 all of which must be taken.
Papers 1 and 2 will be a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple choice questions to be answered within 50 minutes for 50 marks.
PAPER
2: Will consist of six essay questions with each drawn from at least
two themes in the syllabus. Candidates will be required to answer five
of the questions within 2 hours 10 minutes for 90 marks.
PAPER 3:
Will be a practical paper for school candidates and alternative to
practical paper for private candidates. It will consist of four
questions, all of which should be answered within 1½ hours for 60 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Paper 1(Objective)
1. The device which helps to regulate heat in an incubator is the
A. thermometer.
B. hygrometer.
C. insulator.
D. thermostat.
2. Which of the following statements about crop production is not correct?
A. Onions are commonly grown in the rainforest zones.
B. Yam, cocoyam and cassava are grown in both the rainforest and the savanna regions.
C. Some foreign vegetable crops are grown in and around urban centres.
D. Carrots are commonly grown in the savanna and moist vegetation belts.
3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of surface irrigation?
A. The quantity of water lost is high.
B. Water is evenly distributed over the farmland
C. It is very cheap to operate.
D. The system is suitable for paddy rice cultivation.
4. Fine soil tilth is produced by the use of
A. harrow.
B. plough.
C. ridger.
D. mower.
5. The problems of farm mechanization in West Africa include the following except
A. reduction of farm drudgery.
B. small farm holdings.
C. poverty of farmers.
D. poor topography.
Paper 2 (Essay)
(1) (a) Explain each of the following terms as used in animal production:
(i) dipping;
(ii) dry cow;
(iii) culling;
(iv) quarantine. [8 marks]
(b) Describe the life cycle of roundworm (Ascaris lumbricoides). [4 marks]
(c) Explain the term farm mechanization. [2 marks]
(d) Name four tractor coupled implements [4 marks]
(2) (a) State six limitations of farm mechanization in West Africa. [6 marks]
(b) Suggest six ways of encouraging farm mechanization in West Africa.
[6
marks] (c) List four methods of identification in cattle management. [4
marks] (d) What is debeaking in poultry management? [2 marks]
(3)
(a) Mention two processes that release carbon dioxide into the
atmosphere[2 marks] (b) Name four storage pests of crops [4 marks] (c)
State two functions of Potassium in crops. [2 marks]
(d) List three ways by which each of the following biotic factors
affects agricultural production:
(i) parasites; (ii) soil organisms. [6 marks]
(e) State four advantages of zero tillage. [4 marks]
PAPER 3
(PRACTICAL)
(Instruction)
Specimens
A – Granite
B – Limestone
C – Marble
1.(a) Identify specimens A, B and C. [3 marks]
(b) Classify specimens A, B and C according to their mode of formation. [3 marks]
(c) State three characteristics of each of specimens A, B and C. [9 marks]
2. (a) Differentiate between specimens A and B [ 6 marks ]
(b) State four ways in which specimen A is important [ 4 marks ]
(c) Describe the formation of specimen A [ 5 marks ]
Waec Scheme for GovernmentThere
will be two papers – Paper 1 and Paper 2, both of which must be taken.
Papers 1 and 2 will be composite and wlii be taken at one sitting.
PAPER
1: This will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions drawn
from the entire syllabus. Candidates will be required to answer all the
questions in 1 hour for 40 marks.
PAPER 2: This will be a two-hour essay type test consisting of two sections, Sections A and B.
Section A: Elements of Government
Shall contain five questions out of which candidates shall be required to attempt any two.
Section B: Political and Constitutional Developments in West Africa and International Relations
Shall
contain sets of five questions. Each set shall be on one member
country. Each candidate is to answer two questions chosen from the set
on the country in which he/she is taking the examination.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1
(OBJECTIVE)
1. One merit of decentralization is that
A. decisions on local matters are made daily.
B. it is less expensive to operate.
C. decision-making at national level is enhanced.
D. at the local levels, decisions can be taken.
2. Political parties are formed in order to
A. make laws for the state.
B. educate citizens on political issues.
C. recruit labour union leaders.
D. appoint civil and public servants.
3. The educated elite opposed indirect rule in West Africa because
A. it distorted the institution of chieftaincy.
B. the British had shortage of personnel.
C. it was successful in order parts of the world.
D. the elite took part in the administration of the territories.
4. The institution that protects the rights and liberties of citizens of a state is the
A. legislature.
B. executive.
C. judiciary.
D. media.
5. Public opinion is not measured through
A. elections.
B. lobbying.
C. referendum.
D. opinion poll.
6. In the presidential system of government, a bill becomes a law only when it receives assent by the
A. President.
B. Prime Minister.
C. Chief Justice.
D. Chief of Staff.
PAPER 2
(ESSAY)
SECTION A
For all candidates
1. Outline three merits and three demerits of Separation of Powers.
2. Explain six functions performed by political parties in your country.
3. Describe six factors that can determine the effectiveness of pressure groups
4. Explain six duties expected to be performed by a citizen of a state.
5. (a) What is a state?
(b) Outline five reasons why individuals must belong to a state.
SECTION B
For candidates in Nigeria only
6. How did the people of British West African territories govern themselves before the advent of colonial rule.
7. What are the main criticisms levelled against the 1946 Richards Constitution of Nigeria.
8. Outline six benefits Nigeria derives from her membership of the United Nations Organization.
For candidates in Sierra Leone only
9. Describe the political organization of the Mende of Sierra Leone in the pre-colonial period.
10. State four changes introduced by the 1961 Independence Constitution of Sier
